1. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately
(1) 2.5 meters
(2) 2.2 meters
(3) 2.7 meters
(4) 2.0 meters
Answer (2)
2. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by
(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Ctenophora
Answer (1)
3. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Answer (1)
4. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Polysomes
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer (2)
5. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents
(1) Depolarisation of auricles
(2) Depolarisation of ventricles
(3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(4) Repolarisation of auricles
Answer (2)
6. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Answer (3)
7. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
(1) Sutton
(2) Boveri
(3) Morgan
(4) Mendel
Answer (3)
8. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf
(2) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour
(3) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour
(4) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support
Answer (2)
9. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Answer (2)
10. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
Select the correct option from the following:
Answer (1)
11. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure
(1) Glycerol, trypsin
(2) Cellulose, lecithin
(3) Inulin, insulin
(4) Chitin, cholesterol
Answer (3)
12. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
(1) DNA helicase
(2) DNA polymerase
(3) RNA polymerase
(4) DNA ligase
Answer (3)
13. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because
(1) the cockroach does not have nervous system.
(2) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
(3) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
(4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
Answer (2)
14. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(1) (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) only (d)
(4) (a) and (b)
Answer (4)
15. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
(1) Mutational breeding
(2) Cross breeding
(3) Inbreeding
(4) Out crossing
Answer (2)
16. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?
(1) Collagen
(2) Lectin
(3) Insulin
(4) Haemoglobin
Answer (1)
17. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?
(1) 2
(2) 14
(3) 8
(4) 4
Answer (2)
18. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at
(1) Micropyle
(2) Nucellus
(3) Chalaza
(4) Hilum
Answer (4)
19. Which of the following is correct about viroids?
(1) They have free RNA without protein coat
(2) They have DNA with protein coat
(3) They have free DNA without protein coat
(4) They have RNA with protein coat
Answer (1)
20. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Zero
Answer (1)
21. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are
(1) Nitrate alone
(2) Ammonia and oxygen
(3) Ammonia and hydrogen
(4) Ammonia alone
Answer (3)
22. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.
Answer (1)
23. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask
(1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
Answer (4)
24. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
(3) Adenine does not pair with thymine
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
Answer (4)
25. Match the following with respect to meiosis
Select the correct option from the following
Answer (1)
26. Choose the correct pair from the following
(1) Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments
(2) Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
(3) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
(4) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
Answer (4)
27. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(3) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
Answer (4)
28. Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by
(1) Alfred Wallace
(2) Charles Darwin
(3) Oparin
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer
Answer (4)
29. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are
(1) Primary roots
(2) Prop roots
(3) Lateral roots
(4) Fibrous roots
Answer (4)
30. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of
(1) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
Answer (1)
31. Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle?
(1) High concentration of Progesterone
(2) Low concentration of LH
(3) Low concentration of FSH
(4) High concentration of Estrogen
Answer (4)
32. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from
(1) Columnar epithelial cells
(2) Chondrocytes
(3) Compound epithelial cells
(4) Squamous epithelial cells
Answer (1)
33. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to
(1) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
(2) High reflection of light from snow
(3) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
(4) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
Answer (1)
34. Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants
Select the correct option
Answer (2)
35. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to
(1) Fungal diseases
(2) Plant nematodes
(3) Insect predators
(4) Insect pests
Answer (4)
36. Ray florets have
(1) Superior ovary
(2) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Half inferior ovary
(4) Inferior ovary
Answer (4)
37. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of
(1) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(2) Release of Green House gases
(3) Disposal of e-wastes
(4) Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another
Answer (1)
38. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.
(1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
(2) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
(4) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
Answer (3)
39. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is
(1) Sporozoites
(2) Female gametocytes
(3) Male gametocytes
(4) Trophozoites
Answer (1)
40. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed
(1) At the time of copulation
(2) After zygote formation
(3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
(4) Prior to ovulation
Answer (3)
41. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of
(1) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
(2) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
(4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
Answer (1)
42. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
(1) (c) and (a)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (d) and (c)
Answer (3)
43. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Answer (1)
44. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(2) Anabaena and Volvox
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina
(4) Laminaria and Sargassum
Answer (3)
45. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from
(1) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(2) PS-I to NADP+
(3) PS-I to ATP synthase
(4) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
Answer (4)
46. Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
(1) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(4) Uremia and Ketonuria
Answer (2)
47. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their
(1) Growth response
(2) Defence action
(3) Effect on reproduction
(4) Nutritive value
Answer (2)
48. Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
(1) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
(3) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(4) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
Answer (1)
49. Select the correct match
(1) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait
(2) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
(3) Thalassemia – X linked
(4) Haemophilia – Y linked
Answer (2)
50. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
(1) Natality
(2) Mortality
(3) Species interaction
(4) Sex ratio
Answer (3)
51. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
(1) These are involved in ingestion of food particles
(2) They lie free in the cytoplasm
(3) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
(4) They are not bound by any membrane
Answer (1)
52. The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features :
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent
Identify the category of plant and its part :
(1) Monocotyledonous root
(2) Dicotyledonous stem
(3) Dicotyledonous root
(4) Monocotyledonous stem
Answer (4)
53. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
(2) Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same
(3) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
(4) Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
Answer (1)
54. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by :
(1) Water currents only
(2) Wind and water
(3) Insects and water
(4) Insects or wind
Answer (4)
55. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(1) Floating debris
(2) Effluents of primary treatment
(3) Activated sludge
(4) Primary sludge
Answer (3)
56. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is
(1) Root pressure
(2) Imbibition
(3) Plasmolysis
(4) Transpiration
Answer (1)
57. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in
(1) Ducts of salivary glands
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(3) Eustachian tube
(4) Lining of intestine
Answer (2)
58. Select the correct statement.
(1) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(2) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
(3) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(4) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
Answer (4)
59. Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
(1) Abscisic acid
(2) Phenolic acid
(3) Para-ascorbic acid
(4) Gibberellic acid
Answer (4)
60. According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about
(1) 20 million
(2) 50 million
(3) 7 million
(4) 1.5 million
Answer (3)
61. Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.
Select the correct option
Answer (4)
62. The first phase of translation is
(1) Recognition of DNA molecule
(2) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(3) Recognition of an anti-codon
(4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
Answer (2)
63. Strobili or cones are found in
(1) Pteris
(2) Marchantia
(3) Equisetum
(4) Salvinia
Answer (3)
64. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Answer (4)
65. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of
(1) G1 phase
(2) S phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) M phase
Answer (4)
66. Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.
(1) Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal
(2) Ileum is a highly coiled part
(3) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum
(4) Ileum opens into small intestine
Answer (2)
67. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
(1) GIFT and ZIFT
(2) ICSI and ZIFT
(3) GIFT and ICSI
(4) ZIFT and IUT
Answer (4)
68. The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (a) only
Answer (3)
69. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during
(1) Zygotene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Leptotene
(4) Pachytene
Answer (2)
70. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Answer (2)
71. The ovary is half inferior in :
(1) Mustard
(2) Sunflower
(3) Plum
(4) Brinjal
Answer (3)
72. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
(1) Glutamic Acid
(2) Lysine
(3) Valine
(4) Tyrosine
Answer (2)
73. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Answer (4)
74. Match the following
Choose the correct option from the following
Answer (4)
75. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(1) Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
(3) Nuclear Division takes place.
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
Answer (2)
76. Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
(1) Gibberellin
(2) Ethylene
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinin
Answer (1)
77. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(1) A person will have only two of the three alleles.
(2) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.
(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(4) The gene (I) has three alleles.
Answer (2)
78. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
(3) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
(4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
Answer (2)
79. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of
(1) trypsinogen into trypsin
(2) caseinogen into casein
(3) pepsinogen into pepsin
(4) protein into polypeptides
Answer (1)
80. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is
(1) 5' - GGAACC - 3'
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(2) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
3' - GAATTC - 5'
(3) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(4) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
3' - CTTAAG - 5'
Answer (4)
81. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Answer (4)
82. Floridean starch has structure similar to
(1) Amylopectin and glycogen
(2) Mannitol and algin
(3) Laminarin and cellulose
(4) Starch and cellulose
Answer (1)
83. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E.Coli.
(4) In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin
Answer (2)
84. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Industrial melanism
(3) Natural selection
(4) Adaptive radiation
Answer (1)
85. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) only (d)
(4) only (a)
Answer (2)
86. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
(1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin
(2) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2
Answer (2)
87. The process of growth is maximum during
(1) Lag phase
(2) Senescence
(3) Dormancy
(4) Log phase
Answer (4)
88. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
(1) Madagascar
(2) Himalayas
(3) Amazon forests
(4) Western Ghats of India
Answer (3)
89. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
(1) Ori site
(2) Palindromic sequence
(3) Recognition site
(4) Selectable marker
Answer (1)
90. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Answer (3)
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