PG TRB Physics Exam Mock Test - 150 Marks

Section 1: Quantum - Atomic Physics (Q1–Q11)

1. On a potential energy diagram, a transition governed by the Franck-Condon principles is best represented as:

a) Horizontal line b) Diagonal line c) Vertical line d) Curved line

2. What principles explain the intensity distribution in Vibration transition?

a) Bohr’s correspondence principles b) Heinsenberg’s principles c) Pauli Exclusion principle d) Franck-Condon principle

3. The basic Quantum Mechanical model for the rotational spectroscopy of a diatomic molecules is:

a) Simple harmonic Oscillator b) Rigid rotor model c) Particle in a box model d) Free particle model

4. Rotational spectra of diatomic molecules arise from changes in which Quantum number?

a) Vibrational Quantum number b) Electronic Quantum number c) Rotational Quantum number d) Magnetic Quantum number

5. Which type of Atomic Nuclei Exhibit the Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Phenomenon?

a) Nuclei with an even mass number b) Nuclei with an even atomic number c) Nuclei with Non-Zero nuclear spin d) Nuclei with no charge

6. In the Paschen-Back effect, which of the following is most likely to occur?

a) The energy levels split into a small number of components b) The splitting of spectral lines in Quadratic with respect to magnetic field. c) The coupling between the orbit and spin angular momenta is disrupted. d) The magnetic field is weak and doesn’t affect the spin orbit coupling.

7. ASSERTION (A) : The Zeeman effect can be observed when an atom is placed in an Electric field. REASON (R) : The interaction of the magnetic moment of an atom with an external electric field causes the energy level to split.

a) Assertion and reason are true, R is the correct explanation of A b) Assertion and reason are false, R is not correct explanation of A. c) Assertion are true, but Reason is false d) Assertion is false, But reason is true.

8. Which of the following Alkali Metals is used in photoelectric cells?

a) Lithium b) Sodium c) Potassium d) Caesium

9. List -1 List-2
a) Alkali metals - 1. Highly electronegative
b) Halogens - 2. Good conductors
c) Nobel gases - 3. Lowest ionization
d) Transition elements - 4. Inert gas
Match:

a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

10. According to Pauli exclusion principles, if two electrons are in the same orbital they must:

a) Have the same spin b) Have opposite spin c) Be in different subshell d) Have the same energy level.

11. For which type of particle is the wave function required to be Antisymmetric under the exchange of any two particles?

a) Bosons b) Fermions c) both a & b d) Neither a or b

Section 2: Electronics (Q12–Q22)

12. A certain Op-amp has an Open loop voltage gain of 1,00,000 and a common mode gain of 0.2. The CMRR is:

a) 5,00,000 b) 114 dB c) Both a & b d) None of these

13. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must initially be:

a) 1 b) less than 1 c) Greater than 1 d) Equal to B

14. In certain FET circuit VGS = 0V, VDD= 15V, Idss=15mA and Rd=470 ohm. If Rd is decreased to 330 ohm, Idss is ______:

a) 19.5 mA b) 10.5 mA c) 15 mA d) 1 mA

15. A diode that has a negative resistance characteristic is the:

a) Schoktty diode b) Tunnel diode c) Laser diode d) Hot carrier cathode

16. Once in Saturation, a further increase in the base current will:

a) Cause the collector current to increase b) Not Affect the collector current c) Cause the collector to decrease d) Turn the transistor Off

17. For a step input, the output of an integrator is:

a) A pulse b) A triangular wave form c) A spike d) A ramp

18. A feature that distinguishes the JK flip-flops from the S-R flip-flops is the:

a) Toggle condition b) Preset input c) Type of clock d) clear input

19. Three cascaded modulus 10 counters have an overall modulus of:

a) 30 b) 100 c) 1000 d) 10000

20. To serially shift a byte of data into a shift register there must be:

a) One clock pulse b) one load pulse c) Eight clock pulse d) One clock pulse for each 1 in the data

21. The frequency of Oscillation for phase shift Oscillator is:

a) 1/2πRC b) 1/2π√RC c) 1/2π√6 RC d) 1/2π√3RC

22. The mobility of an Electron in a conductor is expressed in terms of:

a) Cm² /v-s b) Cm /v-s c) Cm²/V d) Cm²/S

Section 3: Classical Mechanics & S.R. (Q23–Q33)

23. Identify the correct statements: (i) The number of physical quantities that are required to uniquely and completely define the position (or) configuration of the system is called degrees of freedom. (ii) The number of degrees of freedom of the system consisting of a cylinder rolling on a stationary inclined plane is two. (iii) The number of degrees of freedom of a double pendulum is two (assume inextensible string). (iv) The number of degrees of freedom of a conical pendulum and a spherical pendulum are two.

(A) i, iii, and iv are correct (B) i, iii, and ii are correct (C) i, ii, and iii are correct (D) i and iii are correct

24. If $q_i$ is a cyclic coordinate, then the Lagrange’s equations of motion reduce to:

(A) $d/dt [\partial L/\partial q_i] = 0, i = 1,2,...n$ (B) $\partial L/\partial q_i = 0, i = 1,2,...n$ (C) $d/dt [\partial L/\partial q_i] = 1, i = 1,2,...n$ (D) $\partial L = 0, i = 1,2,...n$

25. The Lagrange’s equations of motion for an electrical circuit comprising of an inductance ($L$) and capacitance ($C$) is given. The condenser is charged to $q$ coulombs and the current flowing in the circuit is $I$ amps.

(A) $L d²q/dt² - q/C = 0$ (B) $L d²q/dt² + q/C = 0$ (C) $L d²q/dt² + q²/C² = 0$ (D) $L d²q/dt² + q²/C = 0$

26. Euler’s theorem states:

(A) The general displacement of a rigid body with one point fixed is a rotation about some axis. (B) The general displacement of a rigid body is a translation with a rotation. (C) Lagrange’s bracket is canonical invariant. (D) Poisson’s bracket is invariant under canonical transformation.

27. A spaceship of proper length $L_0 = 100m$ moves at $v = 0.8c$ relative to an observer. What is the length observed by the stationary observer?

(A) 60m (B) 80m (C) 100m (D) 120m

28. Law of conservation of energy is a consequence of:

(A) Homogeneity of space (B) Homogeneity of time (C) Homogeneity of space and time (D) Isotropy of space

29. Assertion (A): The principle of least action applies only to classical particles. Reason (R): It cannot be applied to fields or quantum mechanics.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (C) A is true but R is false (D) Both A and R are false

30. A system of particles moves in such a way that the virtual work done by the applied forces and reverse effective forces is zero. That is:

(A) Hamilton principle (B) D’Alembert principle (C) Jacobi principle (D) None of these

31. The time integral of twice the kinetic energy is called the:

(A) Motion (B) Action (C) Friction (D) None of these

32. According to Liouville’s theorem, the density of systems in phase space:

(A) Changes with time (B) Always increases (C) Remains invariant (D) Varies irregularly

33. Variational principle gives the necessary conditions about the quantity appearing as an integral has:

(A) Stationary value (B) Square of its value (C) Cube of its value (D) Exponent of its value

Section 4: Mathematical Physics (Q34–Q44)

34. The order of the differential equation $d³y/dx³ + (d²y/dx²)³ + (dy/dx)⁵ + y = 0$ is:

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 1

35. The gradient of the equation $2x + 3y = 6$ is:

(a) 2/3 (b) 6 (c) -2/3 (d) -3/2

36. The inverse of the matrix $\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 4 \\ 6 & 3 \end{bmatrix}$ is:

(a) $\frac{1}{18}\begin{bmatrix} 3 & -4 \\ -6 & 2 \end{bmatrix}$ (b) $\frac{-1}{18}\begin{bmatrix} -3 & 4 \\ 6 & -2 \end{bmatrix}$ (c) $\frac{-1}{18}\begin{bmatrix} -2 & 4 \\ 6 & 3 \end{bmatrix}$ (d) $\frac{1}{18}\begin{bmatrix} -3 & 4 \\ 6 & -2 \end{bmatrix}$

37. If $H_n(x)$ is the Hermite polynomial of order $n$, then $H_n(-x) = ?$

(a) $H_n(x)$ (b) $(-1)^{(n-1)} H_n(x)$ (c) $(-1)^n H_n(x)$ (d) $(-1)^{(n+1)} H_n(x)$

38. The value of $\Gamma(m)\Gamma(1-m)$ is:

(a) $\sin(m)\sin(1-m)$ (b) $\pi/\sin(m\pi)$ (c) $\pi/\sin((m-1)\pi)$ (d) $\sin((m-1)\pi)/\sin((m+1)\pi)$

39. The Cauchy integral theorem states that if $f(z)$ is analytic in a simply connected domain $D$, then $\oint f(z) = 0$ on every simply closed path $C$ in domain $D$. The condition of analyticity in this theorem is:

(a) Necessary (b) Sufficient (c) Necessary and sufficient (d) Arbitrary

40. If a function $f(z)$ has poles only in the finite part of the $z$ plane, then the function is said to be:

(a) Laurent’s function (b) Liouville’s theorem (c) Residue function (d) Meromorphic function

41. According to Fourier expansion of $x²$, the value of $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (1/n²)$ is:

(a) $\pi²/3$ (b) $\pi²/4$ (c) $\pi²/6$ (d) $\pi²/12$

42. In terms of Legendre polynomial, $x² + x$ is equal to:

(a) $P_0 + P_1 + 2P_2$ (b) $1/3 P_0 + P_1 + 1/3 P_2$ (c) $1/3 P_0 + P_1 + 2/3 P_2$ (d) $1/3 P_0 + 2/3 P_2$

43. The mean of Poisson’s distribution $P(r) = (m^r \cdot e^{-m}) / r!$ is:

(a) $m$ (b) $r$ (c) $m/r$ (d) $m/r!$

44. Stoke’s theorem is:

(a) $\oint A\cdot dl = \int \text{div} A\cdot ds$ (b) $\int A\cdot ds = \int \text{div} A\cdot dv$ (c) $\oint A\cdot dl = \int \text{curl} A\cdot ds$ (d) $\oint \text{curl} A\cdot ds = \int \text{div} V\cdot dv$

Section 5: Electromagnetism (Q45–Q55)

45. The law, governing the force between electric charge is known as:

a) Ampere’s law b) Coulomb’s law c) Faraday's law d) Ohm's law

46. Gauss's law is particularly useful for calculating electric fields when a system possesses:

a) No symmetry b) High symmetry c) Moving charges d) Time dependent fields

47. If an Electric potential $V = Ax² + By² + Cz² + D$ satisfies the Laplace equation ($\nabla²V = 0$). Which of the following must be true for the coefficients $A, B, C$?

a) $A+B+C=0$ b) $A+B+C=1$ c) $2A+2B+2C=1$ d) $2A+2B+2C=0$

48. The Poisson’s equation is derived from:

a) Laplace equation b) Point form of Gauss law c) Thevenin's law d) Kirchhoff law

49. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with the current will be:

a) only outside the pipe b) only inside a pipe c) neither outside nor inside the pipe d) both inside and outside the pipe

50. Find the magnetic field intensity when the magnetic vector potential $A = x\hat{i}+2y\hat{j}+3z\hat{k}$.

a) 6 b) -6 c) 0 d) 1

51. For a diamagnetic material, the magnetic susceptibility is:

a) Greater than zero b) Equal to zero c) Less than zero d) A positive values

52. Who introduced the concept of displacement current?

a) Coulomb b) Maxwell c) Faraday d) Ampere

53. The ratio of average electric energy density and total average energy density of electromagnetic waves is:

a) 2 b) 1 c) 1/2 d) More than one of the above

54. Poynting vector represents:

a) The rate of flux change per unit area b) The rate of energy transfer per unit area c) Electric field per unit area d) Magnetic field per unit area

55. The phenomenon of polarization shows the light has ____ nature.

a) particle b) Transverse c) Longitudinal d) dual

Section 6: Condensed Matter Physics (Q56–Q66)

56. The width of the energy gap of a super conductor is maximum at:

a) 0 K b) Transition temperature c) Room temperature d) None of these

57. The Fermi energy of a metal is $1.4$ eV. The Fermi temperature of the material is approximately:

a) $1.6 \times 10⁴ K$ b) $1.6 \times 10³ K$ c) $1.6 \times 10² K$ d) $1.6 \times 10¹ K$

58. The magnetic susceptibility of a Superconducting state is about:

a) 0 b) +1 c) -1 d) 300

59. The reciprocal lattice of a body centered cubic lattice is:

a) body centered cubic lattice b) face centered cubic lattice c) simple cubic lattice d) Tetragonal lattice

60. At a non Zero temperature the probability of Occupancy of the Fermi level is:

a) 100% b) 75% c) 50% d) 0%

61. In a band theory, The Bloch wave function is:

a) A regular harmonic function with constant amplitude. b) A plane wave function with an amplitude having period of the crystal lattice. c) A plane wave function. d) None of the above statement is correct

62. According to Quantum free electron theory, which type of statistics is followed by electrons?

a) Maxwell Boltzmann b) Bose-Einstein c) Fermi-Dirac d) Planck

63. What does the Kronig-Penny dispersion relation determine?

a) The number of electrons per band b) The width of the electrons per band c) The relation between energy and wave vector (E vs K) d) The temperature dependence of resistivity

64. The intrinsic carrier Concentration ($n_i$) in a semiconductor depends on:

a) Doping level b) Temperature and band gap c) Crystal size d) Lattice constant only

65. The first Brillouin zone in a 1D lattice for spacing $a$ extends from:

a) $-a$ to $a$ b) $0$ to $2\pi/a$ c) $-\pi/a$ to $\pi/a$ d) $0$ to $\pi /a$

66. Piezo electricity is the material to:

a) Generate electricity when heated b) store electric charge c) Generate electric charge, when mechanically stressed. d) Generate magnetic field when polarized

Section 7: Quantum Mechanics (Q67–Q77)

67. Which of the following is not correct:

A) $[L_x, p_x] = i\hbar$ B) $[L_x, p^2] = 0$ C) $[L_i, r^2] = 0$ D) $[L_i, p_i] = 0$

68. Physical origin of optical theorem is the conservation of:

A) Energy B) Mass C) Particle D) Probability

69. According to Fermi's Golden Rule, the transition probability per unit time is:

A) Independent of the density of final state B) Proportional to the density of final state C) Inversely proportional to the density of initial state D) None of these

70. Pauli Spin operators $\sigma_x, \sigma_y, \sigma_z$ are represented by $2 \times 2$ matrices. These are:

A) All symmetric and traceless B) All orthogonal and traceless C) All hermitian and traceless D) Only $\sigma_z$ is hermitian and traceless

71. Which of the following wave function can be a bound state solution of the one-dimensional Schrödinger equation for all values of $x$:

A) $\Psi(x) = A \sec x$ B) $\Psi = A e^{x²}$ C) $\Psi = A e^{-x²}$ D) $\Psi = A e^x$

72. Which of the following is not acceptable wave function in quantum mechanics:

A) $\sin x$ B) $\cos x$ C) $\sin x + \cos x$ D) $e^{ix}$

73. The eigen value of energy of hydrogen atom is:

A) $E_n = -2\pi² \mu e⁴ / (n²h²(4\pi\epsilon_0)²)$ B) $E_n = -2\pi² \mu e⁴ / (n²h³(4\pi\epsilon_0)²)$ C) $E_n = -\pi² \mu e⁴ / (n²h²(4\pi\epsilon_0)²)$ D) $E_n = 2\pi² \mu e⁴ / (n²h²(4\pi\epsilon_0)²)$

74. Find out the correct relation:

A) $\hat{H}\Psi = i\hbar \partial\Psi/\partial x$ B) $\hat{H}\Psi = i\hbar \partial\Psi/\partial t$ C) $\hat{H}\Psi = [\hbar²/2m \nabla² + V]\Psi$ D) $\hat{H}^2 = \hat{p}^2 + V^2$

75. The particle confined within the potential will display:

A) Discrete Series of Energy B) Continuous Series of Energy C) Both Discrete and Continuous Series at time D) None of the above

76. In the equation of continuity $\partial P/\partial t + \nabla\cdot J = 0$:

A) $P = \Psi\Psi^*$ and $J = \hbar/2im (\Psi^*\nabla\Psi - \Psi\nabla\Psi^*)$ B) $J = \Psi\Psi^*$ and $P = \hbar/2im (\Psi^*\nabla\Psi - \Psi\nabla\Psi^*)$ C) $P = \Psi\Psi^*$ and $J = - \hbar/2im (\Psi^*\nabla\Psi - \Psi\nabla\Psi^*)$ D) $J = \Psi\Psi^*$ and $P = \hbar/2im (\Psi\nabla\Psi - \Psi^*\nabla\Psi^*)$

77. When spin is included, the degeneracy of hydrogen energy level is given by:

A) $2n²$ B) $n²$ C) $2n(2n+1)$ D) $n+1$

Section 8: General Physics & Experiments (Q78–Q86)

78. If three resistors of equal value are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is:

a) R b) 3R c) R/3 d) $R^2/3$

79. In a parallel capacitor connection, the voltage across each capacitor is:

a) same b) different c) zero d) depends on total charge

80. If the length of a rod is $49.3$ cm and the true value is $50$ cm, the percentage error is:

a) 0.7% b) 1.4% c) 2% d) 0.14%

81. The number $2.030 \times 10^4$ has:

a) 3 significant figures b) 4 significant figures c) 5 significant figures d) 6 significant figures

82. Hall voltage decreases if:

a) magnetic field increases b) current increases c) carrier type changes d) sample thickness increases

83. The magnitude of $e/m$ for electron is approximately:

a) $1.76 \times 10^{11}$ C/kg b) $9.1 \times 10^{-31}$ kg c) $1.6 \times 10^{-19}$ C d) $9.8$ m/s²

84. Planck's constant can be determined using:

a) Compton scattering b) Millikan oil drop method c) photoelectric effect d) Zeeman effect

85. Which of the following statement is true?

a) precision is the closeness of a measurement to the true value b) accuracy is the closeness of repeated measurements to each other c) precision is the closeness of repeated measurement to each other d) accuracy is the ability of an instrument to read smallest value

86. Which statement is correct for the detection of charged particles?

a) ionization chamber can detect charged particles b) cloud chamber cannot detect charged particles c) charged particles produce no ionization d) photographic plates are useless for charged particles

Section 9: Thermodynamics & Stat. Mech. (Q87–Q94)

87. Liquid Helium displays the properties of superfluid at ......... temperature, associated with a Bose -Einstein condensation:

a) 21.9 K b) 3.14 K c) 2.19 K d) 0 K

88. The root mean square speed, average speed and most probable speed for a gas are in the ratio:

A) $\sqrt{3} : 2\sqrt{2} : 3\sqrt{2}$ B) $2 : 2\sqrt{3} : 2\sqrt{2}$ C) $\sqrt{3} : 2\sqrt{2} : \sqrt{2}$ D) $\sqrt{3} : 2\sqrt{3} : \sqrt{2}$

89. Which thermodynamic law introduce the concept of entropy?

A) Zeroth law B) First law C) Second law D) Third law

90. Specific heat of a gas at constant temperature is:

A) Zero B) Infinity C) Zero or infinity D) Vary from zero to infinity

91. In P - V diagram, the slope ($dP/dV$) of an adiabatic is .......... times the slope of the isothermal.

A) $\gamma$ B) $1/\gamma$ C) $1 - \gamma$ D) $1 - (1/\gamma)$

92. Statement 1: efficiency of carnot's engine can be greater than 100 %. Statement 2: coefficient of performance of a refrigerator can be greater than 100%.

A) Both are correct B) 1 correct, 2 wrong C) 1 wrong, 2 correct D) Both are wrong

93. Gibbs free energy remains constant in:

A) Isochoric - adiabatic process B) Isobaric - adiabatic process C) Isothermal - isobaric process D) Isothermal - isochoric process

94. Which one is not an extensive variable?

A) Density B) Magnetization C) Surface tension D) Specific volume

Section 10: Nuclear and Particle Physics (Q95–Q105)

95. The magnetic Quantum number ($m_l$) determines:

a) energy of the electron b) Shape of the orbital c) Spatial orientation of the orbital d) Spin of the electron

96. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is typically associated with electronic transition in diatomic molecules?

a) Radio b) Infrared c) Ultraviolet d) Microwave

97. A quark can appear in:

A) 2 colours B) 3 colours C) 1 colour D) 4 colours

98. Strong forces of interaction are through the exchange of:

A) protons B) Neutrons C) pi-mesons D) neutrino

99. The quark structure of $\Delta^{++}$ (Delta power ++) is:

A) uuu B) uud C) ddd D) uds

100. Give the approximate values for the corresponding lifetimes of hadronic decay, electromagnetic decay and weak decay!

A) $10^{-9}$ sec, $10^{-6}$ sec, $10^{-3}$ sec B) $10^{-12}$ sec, $10^{-9}$ sec, $10^{-6}$ sec C) $10^{-15}$ sec, $10^{-13}$ sec, $10^{-6}$ sec D) $10^{-23}$ sec, $10^{-15}$ sec, $10^{-10}$ sec

101. The Coulomb energy term in the Semi-Empirical mass formula is proportional to:

A) A B) $A^{1/3}$ C) $A^{-1/3}$ D) $A^{2/3}$

102. Graphite and Heavy water act as moderator in a nuclear reactor and their function is:

A) To slow down neutrons to thermal energies B) To Absorb neutrons to stop the chain reaction C) To cool the reactor D) To control the energy released in the reactor

103. Fission fragments are isotopes of elements whose mass number lie roughly between:

A) 10-20 B) 30-40 C) 70-160 D) 180-240

104. A Stable most nucleus, in general, has:

A) even number of protons and odd number of neutrons B) odd number of protons and even number neutrons. C) even number protons and even number of neutrons D) Odd number of protons and odd number of neutrons.

105. Statement 1: The nuclear constituents interact with only a limited number of their neighbours. Statement 2: Binding energy per nucleon is minimum when packing fraction is minimum.

A) both statements are correct. B) Statement 1 correct, 2 wrong. C) Statement 1 wrong, 2 correct. D) Both statements are wrong.

Section 11: Applied Mathematics (Q106–Q110)

106. The generating function for Bessel’s polynomial is:

(a) $e^{x(z - z^{-1})/2}$ (b) $e^{x^2/2}$ (c) $e^{-x(z - z^{-1})/2}$ (d) $(1 - 2xz + z^2)^{-1/2}$

107. The orthogonality condition for Legendre polynomial $\int_{-1}^{+1} P_m(x)P_n(x) dx = 0$ is true for:

(a) $m = n$ (b) $m \neq n$ (c) $m = n = 0$ only (d) none of these

108. Binomial distribution also called:

(a) Normal distribution (b) Poisson’s distribution (c) Bernoulli’s distribution (d) Standard distribution

109. Assertion: If a particle is moving with constant velocity, then average velocity for any time interval is equal to instantaneous velocity. Reason: If average velocity of a particle moving on a straight line is zero for a given time interval, then instantaneous velocity at some instant with this interval must be zero.

(A) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (B) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. (D) Both assertion and reason are false

110. Hamiltonian canonical equations of motion for a conservative system are:

(A) $-dq_i/dt = \partial H/\partial p_i$ and $-dp_i/dt = \partial H/\partial q_i$ (B) $dq_i/dt = \partial H/\partial p_i$ and $dp_i/dt = \partial H/\partial q_i$ (C) $-dq_i/dt = \partial H/\partial p_i$ and $dp_i/dt = \partial H/\partial q_i$ (D) $dq_i/dt = \partial H/\partial p_i$ and $-dp_i/dt = \partial H/\partial q_i$

Section 12: Education & Psychology (Q111–Q140)

111. “செய்து கற்றல்” முறையை வலியுறுத்தியவர் யார்? Who emphasized the Learning by Doing method?

A) ரூசோ (Rousseau) B) டூயி (Dewey) C) மாண்டிசொரி (Montessori) D) பாவ்லோவ் (Pavlov)

112. IQ = (MA/CA) $\times$ 100 என்ற சூத்திரத்தை முன்வைத்தவர் யார்? Who proposed the formula IQ = (MA/CA) $\times$ 100?

A) ஸ்டெர்ன் (Stern) B) பினே (Binet) C) டெர்மன் (Terman) D) ஸ்பியர்மேன் (Spearman)

113. மாஸ்லோ தேவைகளின் அடுக்குக்கோட்பாட்டின் உச்ச நிலை எது? The highest level in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is:

A) சுய வெளிப்பாடு – Self-actualization B) பாதுகாப்பு – Safety C) கண்ணியம் – Esteem D) சார்பு உணர்வு – Belongingness

114. “சாதகச் சட்டம்” (Law of Effect) யாருடையது? The “Law of Effect” was proposed by:

A) தார்ண்டைக் (Thorndike) B) கோலர் (Kohler) C) ஸ்கின்னர் (Skinner) D) பாண்டூரா (Bandura)

115. “பல்நுண்ணறிவு கோட்பாடு” யாருடையது? Who proposed the Multiple Intelligences Theory?

A) கார்ட்னெர் (Gardner) B) ஸ்பியர்மேன் (Spearman) C) கேட்டெல் (Cattell) D) தர்ஸ்டன் (Thurstone)

116. “அருகாமை வளர்ச்சி வலம் (ZPD)” கருத்தை முன்வைத்தவர் யார்? Who introduced the concept of Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)?

A) வைகோத்ஸ்கி (Vygotsky) B) பியாஜே (Piaget) C) புரூணர் (Bruner) D) ஸ்கின்னர் (Skinner)

117. பொருத்துக (Match the following):
a) பாவ்லோவ் – i) செயற்பாட்டு நிலைமையாக்கம் (Operant Conditioning)
b) ஸ்கின்னர் – ii) பாரம்பரிய நிலைமையாக்கம் (Classical Conditioning)
c) கோலர் – iii) ஆழ்நுணுக்கக் கற்றல் (Insight Learning)
d) தார்ண்டைக் – iv) முயன்றி–தவறிக் கற்றல் (Trial & Error Learning)

A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii C) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii D) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

118. ஒரு மாணவன் ஆசிரியர் உதவியுடன் தான் கற்றுக்கொள்ள முடிகிறது. இது எதற்கான உதாரணம்? A student learns only with teacher’s help. This is an example of:

A) அருகாமை வளர்ச்சி வலம் – ZPD B) முயன்று–தவறிக் கற்றல் – Trial & Error learning C) பாரம்பரிய நிலைமையாக்கம் – Classical Conditioning D) செயற்பாட்டு நிலைமையாக்கம் – Operant Conditioning

119. ஒரு மாணவன் அடிக்கடி தோல்வியால் “நான் முடியாது” என்கிறான். இது எதனை குறிக்கிறது? A student repeatedly says “I can’t” due to frequent failures. It indicates:

A) சுய திறன் குறைவு – Low Self-efficacy B) படைப்பாற்றல் – Creativity C) உந்துதல் – Motivation D) ஆளுமை – Personality

120. கூற்று (Assertion): உட்புற உந்துதல் (Intrinsic Motivation) என்பது உள்ளார்ந்த ஆர்வம். காரணம் (Reason): அது வெளிப்புற பரிசுகளால் மட்டுமே உருவாகிறது.

A) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் சரியான விளக்கம் B) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் விளக்கம் அல்ல C) கூற்று சரி, காரணம் தவறு D) காரணம் சரி, கூற்று தவறு

121. கூற்று (Assertion): Guidance என்பது பரந்த கருத்து. காரணம் (Reason): Counseling என்பது Guidance-இன் ஒரு பகுதி.

A) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் சரியான விளக்கம் B) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் விளக்கம் அல்ல C) கூற்று சரி, காரணம் தவறு D) காரணம் சரி, கூற்று தவறு

122. கூற்று (Assertion): பியாஜே Concrete Operational நிலையில் Conservation புரிதல் ஏற்படுகிறது. காரணம் (Reason): இந்த நிலையில் குழந்தைகள் நியாயபூர்வ சிந்தனையை அடைகின்றனர்.

A) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் சரியான விளக்கம் B) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் விளக்கம் அல்ல C) கூற்று சரி, காரணம் தவறு D) காரணம் சரி, கூற்று தவறு

123. Mean = 50, SD = 5, X = 60. Z-score = ?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) −1

124. ஒரு மாணவரின் மதிப்பெண்கள்: 40, 50, 60. சராசரி (Mean) எவ்வளவு? Scores: 40, 50, 60. What is the Mean?

A) 40 B) 45 C) 50 D) 55

125. “நிலையான சிதறல்” (Standard Deviation) எதற்கான அளவீடு? Standard Deviation is a measure of:

A) மையச் சாய்வு – Central Tendency B) பிளவு – Dispersion C) தொடர்பு – Correlation D) None

126. NEP 2020 பரிந்துரைத்த கல்வி அமைப்பு: What is the school structure recommended in NEP 2020?

A) 10+2+3 B) 8+4 C) 5+3+3+4 D) 6+6

127. நிலைத்த வளர்ச்சி இலக்கு – 4 (SDG-4) வலியுறுத்துவது: SDG-4 emphasizes:

A) வேலை வாய்ப்பு – Employment B) தரமான கல்வி – Quality Education for All C) இலவச உணவு – Free Food D) None

128. தமிழ்நாட்டில் முதலில் “மதிய உணவுத் திட்டம்” அறிமுகமான ஆண்டு: In which year was the Mid-day Meal Scheme first introduced in Tamil Nadu?

A) 1956 B) 1960 C) 1982 D) 1985

129. Freud தன்மை அமைப்பு: Freud’s Personality Structure consists of:

A) அகம் – இட் – அதியகம் (Id – Ego – Superego) B) சிந்தனை – உட்சிந்தனை – அவச்சிந்தனை C) மனப்பாங்கு – திறன் – ஆர்வம் D) நினைவு – சிந்தனை – உணர்ச்சி

130. Big Five Traits-இல் சேராதது எது? Which is NOT part of Big Five Personality Traits?

A) திறந்த மனம் – Openness B) பொறுப்புணர்வு – Conscientiousness C) தாக்குதல் – Aggression D) நரம்புத்தளர்ச்சி – Neuroticism

131. சீரமைவு குறைபாடு (Adjustment Disorder) என்பதன் பொருள்: Adjustment Disorder refers to:

A) சூழலோடு பொருந்தாத மனஅழுத்தம் – Stress due to maladjustment B) நுண்ணறிவு குறைவு – Low Intelligence C) தன்மை குறைவு – Personality defect D) None

132. Bloom’s Revised Taxonomy உச்ச நிலை: The highest level in Bloom’s Revised Taxonomy is:

A) உருவாக்கம் – Create B) மதிப்பீடு – Evaluate C) பயன்பாடு – Apply D) பகுப்பாய்வு – Analyze

133. மைக்ரோ-டீச்சிங்கில் முக்கிய கட்டம்: The most important stage in Micro-Teaching is:

A) பின்னூட்டம் – Feedback B) மறுபயிற்சி – Re-teach C) கற்பித்தல் – Teaching D) மதிப்பீடு – Evaluation

134. Outcome Based Education (OBE) வலியுறுத்துவது: Outcome Based Education emphasizes:

A) உள்ளீடு – Input B) வெளியீடு – Learning Outcomes C) தேர்வு மட்டும் – Examination only D) None

135. Item Analysis-இல் Difficulty index குறிக்கும் பொருள்: In Item Analysis, Difficulty Index indicates:

A) கேள்வி எளிதா/கடினமா – Whether item is easy or hard B) மேல்/கீழ் மாணவர்களை வேறுபடுத்துமா – Discrimination C) நம்பகத்தன்மை – Reliability D) None

136. Validity என்பதன் பொருள்: Validity means:

A) சோதனை measure செய்ய நினைப்பதை measure செய்கிறதா? – Does the test measure what it intends to? B) சோதனை நிலைத்தன்மை – Stability C) மையச் சாய்வு – Central tendency D) None

137. Reliability என்பதன் பொருள்: Reliability means:

A) அளவீட்டின் நிலைத்தன்மை – Consistency of measurement B) அளவீட்டின் துல்லியம் – Accuracy C) மையச் சாய்வு – Central tendency D) None

138. ADDIE மாதிரியின் படிகள்: The stages of ADDIE model are:

A) பகுப்பு – வடிவமைப்பு – உருவாக்கம் – செயல் B) பகுப்பு – வடிவம் – உருவாக்கம் – செயல்படுத்துதல் – மதிப்பீடு C) பகுப்பு – வடிவம் – செயல்படுத்துதல் – பின்னூட்டம் D) None

139. (Incomplete Question - Assumed from context: The final step of the ADDIE model is):

A) Analysis B) Evaluation C) Design D) Implementation

140. (Incomplete Question - Assumed from context: A characteristic of a good test is):

A) Objectivity B) Subjectivity C) Ambiguity D) Complexity

141. What is the chemical symbol for the element Gold?

Ag Gd Au Hg

142. Which planet is known as the 'Morning Star' or 'Evening Star'?

Mars Venus Jupiter Mercury

143. Which mountain range is the longest in the world?

The Himalayas The Rockies The Andes The Alps

144. In computing, what does the acronym "HTTP" stand for?

HyperText Transfer Program High-speed Technology Transmission Protocol HyperText Transfer Protocol Home Tool Transfer Protocol

145. Who wrote the novel "Pride and Prejudice"?

Charlotte Brontë Jane Austen Emily Dickinson Virginia Woolf

146. Which country is the world's largest producer of coffee?

Colombia Vietnam Brazil Ethiopia

147. What is the name of the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy?

Respiration Transpiration Photosynthesis Chemosynthesis

148. How many hearts does an octopus have?

One Two Three Four

149. What is the capital city of Mongolia?

Astana Tashkent Ulaanbaatar Bishkek

150. Who painted the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel?

Leonardo da Vinci Raphael Donatello Michelangelo