Are you looking for the complete NEET 2026 Question Paper and Answer Key? You are in the right place. The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET-UG) is the most competitive medical entrance exam, and analyzing the official paper is crucial for calculating your expected score and ranking.
Below, we have provided the full NEET 2026 question paper with detailed solutions covering all three core subjects: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany and Zoology). Review the interactive questions below to check the official answer key and evaluate your performance!
Physics Section
1. A 100-turn closely wound circular coil of radius 4.5 cm has a magnetic field of $3.14 \times 10^{-3}$ T at its centre. The current flowing through the coil, and the magnitude of the magnetic moment of this coil are, respectively (Take $\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7}$ T m/A)
Answer: (1)
2. Match List I with List II:
List I
A. $E = h\nu$
B. Diffraction and Interference
C. $\lambda = h/p$
D. Compton effect
List II
I. de Broglie wavelength
II. Particle nature of light
III. Wave nature of light
IV. Energy of photon
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I
A. $E = h\nu$
B. Diffraction and Interference
C. $\lambda = h/p$
D. Compton effect
List II
I. de Broglie wavelength
II. Particle nature of light
III. Wave nature of light
IV. Energy of photon
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (1)
3. The current I in the circuit shown below is:
(All diodes are ideal and identical)
(All diodes are ideal and identical)
Answer: (4)
4. The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is:
Answer: (3)
5. The following plots show variation of velocity (v) with time (t), of a ball thrown vertically upward, and falling back. Which of the following plots is/are correct?
Answer: (1)
6. In a vernier callipers, 20 VSD coincide with 16 MSD (each division of length 1 mm). The least count of the vernier callipers is:
Answer: (3)
7. An ac circuit contains a resistance of 10 $\Omega$, a capacitor of 0.1 $\mu$F and an inductor of 1 mH connected in series. The resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately:
Answer: (3)
8. The figure given below shows a long straight solid wire of circular cross-section of radius 'a' carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The plot which correctly represents the variation of magnetic field (B) with distance (r) from the axis of the conductor in the region is:
Answer: (1)
9. A uniform metallic wire having resistance 4 $\Omega$ is bent to form a square loop (ABCD). A resistance of 2 $\Omega$ is connected between points B and D and a battery of 2 V is connected across points A and C as shown in the figure. Now the value of current (I) is:
Answer: (1)
10. An unknown nucleus has a nuclear density of $2.29 \times 10^{17}$ kg/m$^3$ and mass of $19.926 \times 10^{-27}$ kg. Its mass number A is approximately:
(Take $R_0 = 1.2 \times 10^{-15}$ m, $4\pi = 12.56$)
(Take $R_0 = 1.2 \times 10^{-15}$ m, $4\pi = 12.56$)
Answer: (1)
11. A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 3 cm with a small cut, is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the plane of the loop. The emf developed across the cut, if the velocity of the loop is 2 cm s$^{-1}$, in a direction normal to the shorter side of the loop, will be:
Answer: (4)
12. A galvanometer of resistance 100 $\Omega$ gives full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. It is converted into an ammeter of range 0-10 A. The shunt required is:
Answer: (1)
13. In Young's double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength $\lambda$, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is $\lambda$ is K units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is $\lambda/3$ will be:
Answer: (1)
14. The magnitude and direction of the acceleration produced in a body of mass 5 kg when two mutually perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N act on it, are respectively:
Answer: (3)
15. Five capacitors of capacitances $C_1 = C_2 = C_3 = C_4 = 10 \mu$F and $C_5 = 2.5 \mu$F are connected as shown, along with a battery of 50 V.
The equivalent capacitance and the charges on each capacitor respectively are:
The equivalent capacitance and the charges on each capacitor respectively are:
Answer: (2)
16. In a metre bridge experiment, the positions of the cell, E, and galvanometer, G, are interchanged. We shall observe in the galvanometer:
Answer: (3)
17. The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is: (g = 9.8 m/s$^2$)
Answer: (3)
18. Match List I with List II:
A. Young's Modulus
B. Compressibility
C. Bulk Modulus
D. Poisson's Ratio
I. $\frac{\Delta d}{\Delta L}(\frac{L}{d})$
II. $\frac{FL}{A(\Delta L)}$
III. $-\frac{1}{\Delta P}(\frac{\Delta V}{V})$
IV. $-P(\frac{V}{\Delta V})$
A. Young's Modulus
B. Compressibility
C. Bulk Modulus
D. Poisson's Ratio
I. $\frac{\Delta d}{\Delta L}(\frac{L}{d})$
II. $\frac{FL}{A(\Delta L)}$
III. $-\frac{1}{\Delta P}(\frac{\Delta V}{V})$
IV. $-P(\frac{V}{\Delta V})$
Answer: (4)
19. In a concave lens, a ray of light emanating from the object parallel to the principal axis of the lens, after refraction:
Answer: (2)
20. A thin wire of length 'L' and linear mass density 'm' is bent into a circular ring (in x-y plane) with centre 'C' as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis yy' will be:
Answer: (3)
21. Each side of a metallic cube of mass 5.580 kg is measured to be 9.0 cm. Keeping the significant figures in view, the density of the material of the cube can be best expressed as $X \times 10^3$ kg m$^{-3}$ where the value of X is:
Answer: (2)
22. For a travelling harmonic wave $y(x,t) = 2.0 \cos 2\pi(10t - 0.0080x + 0.35)$, where x and y are in cm and t in s. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of 0.5 m is:
Answer: (4)
23. A ray of monochromatic light is passing through an equilateral prism (ABC) as shown in the figure. The refracted ray (QR) is parallel to its base (BC) and the angle of incidence (i) is $50^\circ$. Then the angle of deviation ($\delta$) is:
Answer: (1)
24. In the circuit shown below, the voltage appearing across the diode D will be of the form:
Answer: (3)
25. For a simple pendulum, having time period T, the variation of kinetic energy (K.E.) with time (t) is represented by:
Answer: (3)
26. A resistor is connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance 2 $\Omega$. If the current in the circuit is 0.6 A, the terminal voltage of the battery is:
Answer: (2)
27. The amount of work done to raise a mass 'm' from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to the radius of the Earth 'R', will be:
Answer: (4)
28. An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 75 J/s, then the rate at which internal energy increases will be:
Answer: (3)
29. A room heater is rated 400 W, 220 V. If the supply voltage drops to 200 V, what will be the power consumed (approximately)?
Answer: (2)
30. When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reaction times. (g = 9.8 m s$^{-2}$)
A. Person A: 0.20 s
B. Person B: 0.22 s
C. Person C: 0.18 s
D. Person D: 0.19 s
E. Person E: 0.21 s
What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person?
A. Person A: 0.20 s
B. Person B: 0.22 s
C. Person C: 0.18 s
D. Person D: 0.19 s
E. Person E: 0.21 s
What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person?
Answer: (4)
31. Consider two uncharged capacitors of equal capacitance 200 pF. One of them is charged by a 100 V supply and disconnected. Now this capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor. The amount of electrostatic energy lost in the process is:
Answer: (2)
32. Savitha, a XI standard student, while conducting an experiment to determine the effective length of a simple pendulum L, notes down the data of time taken to complete 30 oscillations as 60 s and hence calculates the length of the simple pendulum as: (Take $\pi^2 = 9.8$ and g = 9.8 m/s$^2$)
Answer: (4)
33. The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and frequency is 60 Hz. How long will the current, starting from zero, take to reach the peak value?
Answer: (1)
34. In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed...
A. As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy.
B. Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves.
A. As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy.
B. Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves.
Answer: (1)
35. A box of mass 15 kg is kept on the floor of a stationary trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trolley is 0.12. Keeping the box in stationary state over the trolley, the maximum acceleration with which the trolley can be moved horizontally in m s$^{-2}$ is:
Answer: (4)
36. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple pendulum bob is 0.02 joule. The speed of the simple pendulum bob at equilibrium position is approximately: (mass = 20 g)
Answer: (1)
37. Four statements are given (A is mass number):
A. Volume of a nucleus is proportional to $A^{1/3}$.
B. Volume of a nucleus is proportional to A.
C. Difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called mass defect.
D. Difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called mass defect.
A. Volume of a nucleus is proportional to $A^{1/3}$.
B. Volume of a nucleus is proportional to A.
C. Difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called mass defect.
D. Difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called mass defect.
Answer: (1)
38. The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s. The number of revolutions completed by the flywheel during this time is:
Answer: (4)
39. A submarine is designed to withstand an absolute pressure of 100 atm. How deep can it go below the water surface? (Density = 1000 kg m$^{-3}$, 1 atm = $1 \times 10^5$ Pa)
Answer: (4)
40. Match List I (Electromagnetic wave) with List II (Production):
A. Microwave
B. Visible light
C. Gamma ray
D. Infra-red rays
I. Electrons in atoms emit light when they move to lower level.
II. Radioactive decay.
III. Vibration of atoms.
IV. Klystron valve.
A. Microwave
B. Visible light
C. Gamma ray
D. Infra-red rays
I. Electrons in atoms emit light when they move to lower level.
II. Radioactive decay.
III. Vibration of atoms.
IV. Klystron valve.
Answer: (3)
41. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Inside a conductor, electrostatic field is zero.
B. Electric field at surface does not depend on surface charge density.
C. Interior of charged conductor has no excess charge.
D. At surface, field is normal to surface.
E. Electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside.
A. Inside a conductor, electrostatic field is zero.
B. Electric field at surface does not depend on surface charge density.
C. Interior of charged conductor has no excess charge.
D. At surface, field is normal to surface.
E. Electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside.
Answer: (3)
42. For a metal of work function 6.6 eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect?
Answer: (1)
43. In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is -3.4 eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately:
Answer: (4)
44. Two statements are given below:
A. When the forward bias voltage across a p-n junction diode increases above a certain threshold voltage, the diode current increases significantly.
B. This current is called reverse saturation current.
A. When the forward bias voltage across a p-n junction diode increases above a certain threshold voltage, the diode current increases significantly.
B. This current is called reverse saturation current.
Answer: (2)
45. A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2:1 by mass at $27^\circ$C. The ratio of root mean square speed of the molecules of the two gases $(v_{rms}^{Ar}/v_{rms}^{Cl_2})$ is: (Ar = 40 u, Cl2 = 70 u)
Answer: (1)
46. Match List I with List II (Reaction matching):
Answer: (2)
47. The major product formed in the following sequence of reactions is:
$C_2H_6 \xrightarrow{Cl_2 / UV} X \xrightarrow{NaNO_2} Y \xrightarrow{Sn+HCl, \ then \ H_2O} Z$
$C_2H_6 \xrightarrow{Cl_2 / UV} X \xrightarrow{NaNO_2} Y \xrightarrow{Sn+HCl, \ then \ H_2O} Z$
Answer: (4)
48. In a qualitative analysis $Bi^{3+}$ is detected by appearance of precipitate of $BiO(OH)(s)$. Calculate pH when the following equilibrium exists at 298 K:
$BiO(OH)(s) \rightleftharpoons BiO^+(aq) + OH^-(aq), K = 4 \times 10^{-10}$
$BiO(OH)(s) \rightleftharpoons BiO^+(aq) + OH^-(aq), K = 4 \times 10^{-10}$
Answer: (3)
49. When 1 dm$^3$ of $CO_2$ gas is passed over hot coke, the volume of gaseous mixture after complete reaction at STP becomes 1.4 dm$^3$. The composition of the gaseous mixture at STP is:
Answer: (3)
50. Match List I with List II:
A. n=2, l=1
B. n=4, l=0
C. n=5, l=3
D. n=3, l=2
I. 3d
II. 2p
III. 4s
IV. 5f
A. n=2, l=1
B. n=4, l=0
C. n=5, l=3
D. n=3, l=2
I. 3d
II. 2p
III. 4s
IV. 5f
Answer: (1)
Chemistry Section
51. The number of chlorine atoms present in the organic products X and Y of the following reactions, respectively, are:
Answer: (3)
52. In the following reaction sequence, X and Z respectively are:
$CH_3CH_2CH_2-OH + PCl_5 \rightarrow CH_3CH_2CH_2Cl + X + HCl$
$CH_3CH_2CH_2Cl \xrightarrow[\Delta]{\text{alc. KOH}} Y \xrightarrow[(C_6H_5CO)_2O_2]{HBr} Z$
$CH_3CH_2CH_2-OH + PCl_5 \rightarrow CH_3CH_2CH_2Cl + X + HCl$
$CH_3CH_2CH_2Cl \xrightarrow[\Delta]{\text{alc. KOH}} Y \xrightarrow[(C_6H_5CO)_2O_2]{HBr} Z$
Answer: (4)
53. Match List I with List II:
List I (Catalyst)
A. $V_2O_5$
B. Fe
C. $PdCl_2$
D. Ni complex
List II (Process)
I. Ammonia from $N_2/H_2$
II. Polymerisation of alkynes
III. $H_2SO_4$ from $SO_2$
IV. Oxidation of ethyne to ethanal
List I (Catalyst)
A. $V_2O_5$
B. Fe
C. $PdCl_2$
D. Ni complex
List II (Process)
I. Ammonia from $N_2/H_2$
II. Polymerisation of alkynes
III. $H_2SO_4$ from $SO_2$
IV. Oxidation of ethyne to ethanal
Answer: (4)
54. Identify the correct statement about $ClF_3$ from the following options:
Answer: (2)
55. Calculate emf of the half cell given below:
Pt (s) | $H_2$ (g, 2 atm) | HCl (aq, 0.02 M)
$E^\circ_{H^+/H_2} = 0$ V (Given: $2.303 RT/F = 0.059$, $\log 2 = 0.3010$)
Pt (s) | $H_2$ (g, 2 atm) | HCl (aq, 0.02 M)
$E^\circ_{H^+/H_2} = 0$ V (Given: $2.303 RT/F = 0.059$, $\log 2 = 0.3010$)
Answer: (2)
56. Match List I with List II:
A. Zero order
B. First order
C. Second order
D. Third order
I. $L \ mol^{-1} \ s^{-1}$
II. $L^2 \ mol^{-2} \ s^{-1}$
III. $s^{-1}$
IV. $mol \ L^{-1} \ s^{-1}$
A. Zero order
B. First order
C. Second order
D. Third order
I. $L \ mol^{-1} \ s^{-1}$
II. $L^2 \ mol^{-2} \ s^{-1}$
III. $s^{-1}$
IV. $mol \ L^{-1} \ s^{-1}$
Answer: (3)
57. The calculated spin-only magnetic moment of $Ti^{2+}$ $(3d^2)$ is:
Answer: (1)
58. Two products X and Y are formed in the following reaction sequence.
Benzene $+ CH_3Cl \xrightarrow{AlCl_3} W \xrightarrow{HNO_3 / H_2SO_4} X + Y$
The suitable method that can be used for the separation of products X and Y is:
Benzene $+ CH_3Cl \xrightarrow{AlCl_3} W \xrightarrow{HNO_3 / H_2SO_4} X + Y$
The suitable method that can be used for the separation of products X and Y is:
Answer: (3)
59. A bulb is rated at 150 watt, converting 8% energy into light. If energy of one photon is $4.42 \times 10^{-19}$ J, how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second?
Answer: (3)
60. In a test tube containing a salt, a few drops of dilute $H_2SO_4$ was added, which gave colourless vapours having the smell of vinegar. The vapours turned the blue litmus paper red. Identify the correct anion:
Answer: (1)
61. Select the reagents that reduce nitriles to primary amines:
A. $LiAlH_4/H_2O$ B. $Sn+HCl$ C. $H_2/Ni$ D. $Na(Hg)/C_2H_5OH$ E. $Br_2/aq \ NaOH$
A. $LiAlH_4/H_2O$ B. $Sn+HCl$ C. $H_2/Ni$ D. $Na(Hg)/C_2H_5OH$ E. $Br_2/aq \ NaOH$
Answer: (2)
62. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
Answer: (3)
63. Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because:
Answer: (4)
64. During Lassaigne's test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from:
Answer: (3)
65. The number of hydrogen atoms present in 5.4 g of urea is:
(Molar mass of urea = 60 g/mol, $N_A = 6.022 \times 10^{23}$)
(Molar mass of urea = 60 g/mol, $N_A = 6.022 \times 10^{23}$)
Answer: (1)
66. The pair of molecules that are metamers among the following is:
Answer: (2)
67. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
Answer: (2)
68. Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of sodium hydroxide solution against a standard solution of oxalic acid. The colour change that is observed at an alkaline pH close to the equivalence point during this titration is:
Answer: (3)
69. Match List I with List II:
A. $C_2H_4$
B. $C_2H_2$
C. $CH_4$
D. $NH_3$
I. 3 $\sigma$ bonds, 2 $\pi$ bonds
II. 3 $\sigma$ bonds, 1 lone pair
III. 4 $\sigma$ bonds
IV. 5 $\sigma$ bonds, 1 $\pi$ bond
A. $C_2H_4$
B. $C_2H_2$
C. $CH_4$
D. $NH_3$
I. 3 $\sigma$ bonds, 2 $\pi$ bonds
II. 3 $\sigma$ bonds, 1 lone pair
III. 4 $\sigma$ bonds
IV. 5 $\sigma$ bonds, 1 $\pi$ bond
Answer: (1)
70. At a certain temperature, T (K), during a process, 500 J is absorbed by the system and work of 200 J is done by the system. Then change in internal energy of the system is:
Answer: (2)
71. Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form:
Answer: (1)
72. Compound P ($C_8H_8O$) gives a red orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP reagent and it does not reduce Fehling's reagent. On drastic oxidation with chromic acid, P gives an aromatic product Q that produces effervescence on treating with aq. $NaHCO_3$. Compounds P and Q, respectively, are:
Answer: (1)
73. A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is:
(Given: Molar mass of Cu = 63 g $mol^{-1}$; F = 96487 C $mol^{-1}$)
(Given: Molar mass of Cu = 63 g $mol^{-1}$; F = 96487 C $mol^{-1}$)
Answer: (4)
74. The functional group that can be identified through phthalein dye test is:
Answer: (1)
75. The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is:
Answer: (3)
76. Identify the correct statements:
A. Molality of 2.5 g ethanoic acid in 75 g benzene is 0.556 m.
B. Molarity of 5 g NaOH in 450 mL solution is 0.278 M.
C. Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water.
D. Solubility of gas increases with decrease in pressure.
E. Mole fraction $x_B = n_A/(n_A + n_B)$.
A. Molality of 2.5 g ethanoic acid in 75 g benzene is 0.556 m.
B. Molarity of 5 g NaOH in 450 mL solution is 0.278 M.
C. Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water.
D. Solubility of gas increases with decrease in pressure.
E. Mole fraction $x_B = n_A/(n_A + n_B)$.
Answer: (2)
77. Mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a solution with negative deviation from Raoult's law due to:
Answer: (1)
78. At 298 K, a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of $X^-$ and HX. $K_b$ for $X^-$ is $10^{-10}$. What is the pH of this buffer solution?
Answer: (3)
79. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
Answer: (2)
80. The correct order of increasing metallic character of Na, Be, P, Mg and Si is:
Answer: (1)
81. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:
Answer: (3)
82. Match List I with List II:
A. $[Pt(Cl_2)(NH_3)_2]$
B. $[Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3$
C. $[NiCl_4]^{2-}$
D. $[Fe(CO)_5]$
I. Octahedral
II. Trigonal bipyramidal
III. Square planar
IV. Tetrahedral
A. $[Pt(Cl_2)(NH_3)_2]$
B. $[Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3$
C. $[NiCl_4]^{2-}$
D. $[Fe(CO)_5]$
I. Octahedral
II. Trigonal bipyramidal
III. Square planar
IV. Tetrahedral
Answer: (4)
83. For a certain reaction R $\rightarrow$ Product, the plot of concentration [R] vs time has a negative slope as shown. The order of reaction is:
Answer: (1)
84. Which one of the following is an ambidentate ligand?
Answer: (4)
85. Consider the following reaction: $2A(g) + B(g) \rightarrow 2D(g)$
$\Delta U^\circ = -10.5$ kJ/mol and $\Delta S^\circ = -44$ J/K at 298 K. Identify the correct $\Delta G^\circ$ and spontaneity.
$\Delta U^\circ = -10.5$ kJ/mol and $\Delta S^\circ = -44$ J/K at 298 K. Identify the correct $\Delta G^\circ$ and spontaneity.
Answer: (2)
86. The correct formal charges on oxygen atoms numbered 2, 1 and 3 respectively for the ozone molecule shown are:
Answer: (2)
87. Given below are certain reactions. Identify the reaction for which $K_p \neq K_c$.
Answer: (3)
88. Given below is an expression for the rate constant of a first order reaction:
$\ln k = 14.34 - 1.25 \times 10^4 / T$
The energy of activation in kcal $mol^{-1}$ for the reaction is: (R = 1.987 cal $mol^{-1} K^{-1}$)
$\ln k = 14.34 - 1.25 \times 10^4 / T$
The energy of activation in kcal $mol^{-1}$ for the reaction is: (R = 1.987 cal $mol^{-1} K^{-1}$)
Answer: (4)
89. The following two reactions give the same foul smelling product Z.
$C_2H_5Cl \xrightarrow{X} Z$
$C_2H_5CONH_2 \xrightarrow{Br_2, NaOH} Y \xrightarrow{CHCl_3 / KOH, \Delta} Z$
X and Z, respectively, are:
$C_2H_5Cl \xrightarrow{X} Z$
$C_2H_5CONH_2 \xrightarrow{Br_2, NaOH} Y \xrightarrow{CHCl_3 / KOH, \Delta} Z$
X and Z, respectively, are:
Answer: (4)
90. Match List I with List II:
A. $[Pt(NH_3)_2Cl_2]$
B. $[Co(en)_3]^{3+}$
C. $[Co(NH_3)_5NO_2]Cl_2$
D. $[Cr(H_2O)_6]Cl_3$
I. Optical
II. Solvate
III. Geometrical
IV. Linkage
A. $[Pt(NH_3)_2Cl_2]$
B. $[Co(en)_3]^{3+}$
C. $[Co(NH_3)_5NO_2]Cl_2$
D. $[Cr(H_2O)_6]Cl_3$
I. Optical
II. Solvate
III. Geometrical
IV. Linkage
Answer: (3)
91. "The Evil Quartet" of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?
Answer: (2)
92. Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?
Answer: (1)
93. Match List I with List II:
A. Productivity
B. Net primary productivity
C. Gross primary productivity
D. Secondary productivity
I. Gross primary minus respiration
II. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers
III. Rate of biomass production
IV. Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis
A. Productivity
B. Net primary productivity
C. Gross primary productivity
D. Secondary productivity
I. Gross primary minus respiration
II. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers
III. Rate of biomass production
IV. Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis
Answer: (2)
94. Match List I with List II (Cell Cycle):
A. $G_1$ phase
B. S phase
C. $G_2$ phase
D. M phase
I. Actual cell division
II. Cell is metabolically active
III. Synthesis of DNA
IV. Proteins are synthesized
A. $G_1$ phase
B. S phase
C. $G_2$ phase
D. M phase
I. Actual cell division
II. Cell is metabolically active
III. Synthesis of DNA
IV. Proteins are synthesized
Answer: (1)
95. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Amazon rainforest cut for soyabeans is habitat loss.
B. Steller's sea cow became extinct due to over-exploitation.
C. Nile perch helped cichlid fish population.
D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species.
E. When a species goes extinct, associated species are not affected.
A. Amazon rainforest cut for soyabeans is habitat loss.
B. Steller's sea cow became extinct due to over-exploitation.
C. Nile perch helped cichlid fish population.
D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species.
E. When a species goes extinct, associated species are not affected.
Answer: (2)
96. Identify the correct statements about biomolecules.
A. Lipids are generally water soluble.
B. Proteins are polypeptides.
C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars.
D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines.
E. Almost all enzymes are proteins.
A. Lipids are generally water soluble.
B. Proteins are polypeptides.
C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars.
D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines.
E. Almost all enzymes are proteins.
Answer: (2)
97. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?
Answer: (1)
98. Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases?
A. They are called molecular scissors.
B. Restrict growth of bacteriophages in E. coli.
C. Cut DNA only at the centre of palindromic sites.
D. Remove nucleotides only from ends of DNA.
E. Recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.
A. They are called molecular scissors.
B. Restrict growth of bacteriophages in E. coli.
C. Cut DNA only at the centre of palindromic sites.
D. Remove nucleotides only from ends of DNA.
E. Recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.
Answer: (3)
99. Match List I with List II:
A. Decomposition
B. Detritus
C. Mineralisation
D. Humification
I. Accumulation of dark amorphous substance
II. Release of inorganic nutrients by microbes
III. Breaking down of complex organic matter
IV. Dead remains of plants and animals
A. Decomposition
B. Detritus
C. Mineralisation
D. Humification
I. Accumulation of dark amorphous substance
II. Release of inorganic nutrients by microbes
III. Breaking down of complex organic matter
IV. Dead remains of plants and animals
Answer: (3)
100. In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?
Answer: (3)
Biology Section
101. Match List I with List II:
A. Marginal
B. Axile
C. Parietal
D. Basal
I. Pea
II. Mustard
III. Marigold
IV. Lemon
A. Marginal
B. Axile
C. Parietal
D. Basal
I. Pea
II. Mustard
III. Marigold
IV. Lemon
Answer: (4)
102. In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?
Answer: (4)
103. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?
Answer: (2)
104. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit?
A. Defined primarily by promoter, structural gene and terminator.
B. Promoter located towards 5'-end of structural gene.
C. Promoter provides binding site for RNA polymerase.
D. Promoter defines template and coding strands.
E. Terminator located towards 3'-end of coding strand.
A. Defined primarily by promoter, structural gene and terminator.
B. Promoter located towards 5'-end of structural gene.
C. Promoter provides binding site for RNA polymerase.
D. Promoter defines template and coding strands.
E. Terminator located towards 3'-end of coding strand.
Answer: (1)
105. Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?
Answer: (4)
106. Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids?
A. They are substituted methanes.
B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid.
C. Valine is a neutral amino acid.
D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid.
A. They are substituted methanes.
B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid.
C. Valine is a neutral amino acid.
D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid.
Answer: (3)
107. The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is:
Answer: (3)
108. Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis:
A. Water splitting complex is associated with PS II.
B. C4 plants use C3 pathway as main biosynthetic pathway.
C. In C4 plants, photorespiration does not occur.
D. C3 plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy.
E. ATP synthesis occurs through chemiosmosis.
A. Water splitting complex is associated with PS II.
B. C4 plants use C3 pathway as main biosynthetic pathway.
C. In C4 plants, photorespiration does not occur.
D. C3 plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy.
E. ATP synthesis occurs through chemiosmosis.
Answer: (4)
109. Match List I with List II:
A. Conjunctive tissue
B. Casparian strips
C. Subsidiary cells
D. Starch sheath
I. Specialised cells near guard cells
II. Endodermal cells rich in starch
III. Tissue between xylem and phloem
IV. Endodermal cells with suberin
A. Conjunctive tissue
B. Casparian strips
C. Subsidiary cells
D. Starch sheath
I. Specialised cells near guard cells
II. Endodermal cells rich in starch
III. Tissue between xylem and phloem
IV. Endodermal cells with suberin
Answer: (2)
110. Match List I with List II:
A. GMO
B. Thermostable DNA polymerase
C. Ti plasmid
D. pBR322
I. Agrobacterium
II. Bt cotton
III. Thermus aquaticus
IV. E. coli
A. GMO
B. Thermostable DNA polymerase
C. Ti plasmid
D. pBR322
I. Agrobacterium
II. Bt cotton
III. Thermus aquaticus
IV. E. coli
Answer: (3)
111. Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of:
Answer: (4)
112. In racemose inflorescence:
Answer: (3)
113. Disorder caused by substitution of Glutamic acid by Valine at 6th position of beta globin chain:
Answer: (3)
114. Match List I with List II:
A. Incomplete dominance
B. Co-dominance
C. Pleiotropy
D. Polygenic inheritance
I. Human skin colour
II. Flower colour in Antirrhinum
III. Phenylketonuria
IV. ABO blood groups
A. Incomplete dominance
B. Co-dominance
C. Pleiotropy
D. Polygenic inheritance
I. Human skin colour
II. Flower colour in Antirrhinum
III. Phenylketonuria
IV. ABO blood groups
Answer: (1)
115. Arrange in correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis:
A. Microspore tetrads
B. Sporogenous tissue
C. Pollen grains
D. Pollen mother cells
A. Microspore tetrads
B. Sporogenous tissue
C. Pollen grains
D. Pollen mother cells
Answer: (3)
116. Arrange DNA fingerprinting steps in correct sequence:
A. Isolation/digestion
B. Hybridisation with VNTR probe
C. Transferring fragments to synthetic membranes
D. Autoradiography
E. Separation by electrophoresis
A. Isolation/digestion
B. Hybridisation with VNTR probe
C. Transferring fragments to synthetic membranes
D. Autoradiography
E. Separation by electrophoresis
Answer: (1)
117. Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called:
Answer: (4)
118. True regarding sex-determination in honeybees:
A. Sperm + egg = female.
B. Unfertilized egg = male.
C. Male has half chromosomes of female.
D. Males produce sperms by mitosis.
E. Haplodiploid system.
A. Sperm + egg = female.
B. Unfertilized egg = male.
C. Male has half chromosomes of female.
D. Males produce sperms by mitosis.
E. Haplodiploid system.
Answer: (2)
119. Identify correct sequence of PCR steps:
Answer: (1)
120. Correct statements on DNA separation/visualization:
A. Cutting done by molecular scissors.
B. Fragments separate by size on agarose gel via electrophoresis.
C. Seen without staining under UV.
D. Stained with ethidium bromide seen in visible light.
A. Cutting done by molecular scissors.
B. Fragments separate by size on agarose gel via electrophoresis.
C. Seen without staining under UV.
D. Stained with ethidium bromide seen in visible light.
Answer: (4)
121. Criteria for Five Kingdom Classification by Whittaker:
A. Cell structure
B. Body organization
C. Flagellum
D. Reproduction
E. Phylogenetic relationships
A. Cell structure
B. Body organization
C. Flagellum
D. Reproduction
E. Phylogenetic relationships
Answer: (1)
122. Which one of the following is a triploid cell?
Answer: (2)
123. Correct on DNA packaging:
A. Histones form octamer unit.
B. Histones negatively charged basic proteins.
C. Rich in basic amino acids lysine and arginine.
D. Positively charged DNA wrapped around octamer = nucleosome.
E. Higher level requires non-histone chromosomal proteins.
A. Histones form octamer unit.
B. Histones negatively charged basic proteins.
C. Rich in basic amino acids lysine and arginine.
D. Positively charged DNA wrapped around octamer = nucleosome.
E. Higher level requires non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Answer: (4)
124. Which is an in situ conservation method?
Answer: (1)
125. In lac operon, z gene codes for:
Answer: (4)
126. Match List I with II:
A. 2,4-D
B. GA3
C. Kinetin
D. ABA
I. Brewing industry
II. Stomatal closure
III. Herbicide
IV. Nutrient mobilisation
A. 2,4-D
B. GA3
C. Kinetin
D. ABA
I. Brewing industry
II. Stomatal closure
III. Herbicide
IV. Nutrient mobilisation
Answer: (3)
127. Somatic hybridisation steps:
A. Digestion of walls
B. Isolation of naked protoplasts
C. Fusion
D. Isolation of single cells
E. Growing of hybrid
A. Digestion of walls
B. Isolation of naked protoplasts
C. Fusion
D. Isolation of single cells
E. Growing of hybrid
Answer: (2)
128. $2(C_{51}H_{98}O_6) + 145 O_2 \rightarrow 102 CO_2 + 98 H_2O + \text{energy}$
The RQ would be:
The RQ would be:
Answer: (2)
129. How is the sixth extinction different from previous?
Answer: (2)
130. Match List I with II:
A. Trypsin
B. Morphine
C. Concanavalin A
D. Collagen
I. Ground substance
II. Lectin
III. Enzyme
IV. Alkaloid
A. Trypsin
B. Morphine
C. Concanavalin A
D. Collagen
I. Ground substance
II. Lectin
III. Enzyme
IV. Alkaloid
Answer: (1)
131. Not true about binomial nomenclature:
Answer: (3)
132. Enzyme required for carboxylation in Calvin cycle:
Answer: (2)
133. Floral formula of Solanaceae:
Answer: (1)
134. Pollination bringing genetically different pollen to stigma:
Answer: (3)
135. Match process to location:
A. Glycolysis
B. ETS
C. Accumulation of protons
D. Krebs' cycle
I. Inner mitochondrial membrane
II. Mitochondrial matrix
III. Cytoplasm
IV. Intermembrane space
A. Glycolysis
B. ETS
C. Accumulation of protons
D. Krebs' cycle
I. Inner mitochondrial membrane
II. Mitochondrial matrix
III. Cytoplasm
IV. Intermembrane space
Answer: (2)
136. BamHI insertion in pBR322 results in loss of resistance towards:
Answer: (3)
137. Sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene (Sickle cell):
Answer: (2)
138. Statement regarding GIFT:
Answer: (2)
139. Example of 'sexual deceit':
Answer: (3)
140. Human evolution sequence:
Answer: (2)
141. Match embryonic dev months:
A. Movement/hair on head
B. Limbs/digits
C. External genital organs
D. Body hair/eyelids separate
I. 24 weeks
II. 20 weeks
III. 8 weeks
IV. 12 weeks
A. Movement/hair on head
B. Limbs/digits
C. External genital organs
D. Body hair/eyelids separate
I. 24 weeks
II. 20 weeks
III. 8 weeks
IV. 12 weeks
Answer: (2)
142. Cartilage endoskeleton, ectoparasitic sucking mouth, no paired fins/scales, 7 gill slits pairs:
Answer: (3)
143. Spermatogenesis correct statements:
A. Spermatogonia always meiotic.
B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically.
C. Secondary spermatocytes (meiosis II) produce haploid spermatids.
D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa via mitosis.
E. Spermatids transform to spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.
A. Spermatogonia always meiotic.
B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically.
C. Secondary spermatocytes (meiosis II) produce haploid spermatids.
D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa via mitosis.
E. Spermatids transform to spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.
Answer: (1)
144. Probability of 'O' blood group child from heterozygous 'A' and 'B' parents:
Answer: (4)
145. Renin-Angiotensin events order:
A. Increase BP/GFR.
B. Na+/water reabsorption due to Aldosterone.
C. Fall in GFR.
D. Vasoconstriction/Aldosterone release.
E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen -> I -> II.
A. Increase BP/GFR.
B. Na+/water reabsorption due to Aldosterone.
C. Fall in GFR.
D. Vasoconstriction/Aldosterone release.
E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen -> I -> II.
Answer: (4)
146. Match Respiratory Volume to Capacity:
A. ERV
B. RV
C. IRV
D. TV
I. 2500-3000 mL
II. 500 mL
III. 1000-1100 mL
IV. 1100-1200 mL
A. ERV
B. RV
C. IRV
D. TV
I. 2500-3000 mL
II. 500 mL
III. 1000-1100 mL
IV. 1100-1200 mL
Answer: (3)
147. Match IUD/Contraceptive:
A. Progestasert
B. Multiload 375
C. Diaphragm
D. Saheli
I. Rubber barrier
II. Oral contraceptive
III. Hormone IUD
IV. Copper IUD
A. Progestasert
B. Multiload 375
C. Diaphragm
D. Saheli
I. Rubber barrier
II. Oral contraceptive
III. Hormone IUD
IV. Copper IUD
Answer: (1)
148. Non-membrane bound organelles found in pro/eukaryotes:
Answer: (2)
149. Ecological pyramids generally inverted for:
Answer: (2)
150. Flightless bird, paddle-like swimming forelimbs:
Answer: (4)
151. Match Bioactive molecules:
A. Streptokinase
B. Statins
C. Lipases
D. Cyclosporin A
I. Immunosuppressive
II. Clot removal
III. Blood cholesterol lowering
IV. Detergent
A. Streptokinase
B. Statins
C. Lipases
D. Cyclosporin A
I. Immunosuppressive
II. Clot removal
III. Blood cholesterol lowering
IV. Detergent
Answer: (2)
152. Correct on cell organelles:
A. Endomembrane includes Golgi, ER, Mitochondria.
B. RER bears ribosomes.
C. Mito/Plastids have circular DNA.
D. Cytoskeleton = microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments.
E. Mito is single membrane.
A. Endomembrane includes Golgi, ER, Mitochondria.
B. RER bears ribosomes.
C. Mito/Plastids have circular DNA.
D. Cytoskeleton = microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments.
E. Mito is single membrane.
Answer: (4)
153. Set of fishes in class Osteichthyes:
Answer: (3)
154. Grasshopper pop: Some members 23, others 24 chromosomes. 23 & 24 members are:
Answer: (4)
155. WBC count 8000/cu.mm. Eosinophils & Lymphocytes approx counts:
Answer: (1)
156. Bt toxin genes controlling cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively:
Answer: (3)
157. Match Drug to Effect:
A. Nicotine
B. Morphine
C. Heroin
D. Cocaine
I. Euphoria
II. Adrenal/catecholamines
III. Sedative/painkiller
IV. Depressant
A. Nicotine
B. Morphine
C. Heroin
D. Cocaine
I. Euphoria
II. Adrenal/catecholamines
III. Sedative/painkiller
IV. Depressant
Answer: (2)
158. Match disorder:
A. Tetany
B. Arthritis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Muscular dystrophy
I. Joint inflammation
II. Autoimmune
III. Low Ca++ wild contraction
IV. Progressive degeneration
A. Tetany
B. Arthritis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Muscular dystrophy
I. Joint inflammation
II. Autoimmune
III. Low Ca++ wild contraction
IV. Progressive degeneration
Answer: (1)
159. Haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes in:
Answer: (1)
160. Human respiration order:
A. Tissue diffusion
B. Alveolar diffusion
C. Ventilation
D. Cellular respiration
E. Transport by blood
A. Tissue diffusion
B. Alveolar diffusion
C. Ventilation
D. Cellular respiration
E. Transport by blood
Answer: (4)
161. Ovum cell layers outer to inner:
A. Zona pellucida
B. Perivitelline space
C. Corona radiata
D. Plasma membrane
A. Zona pellucida
B. Perivitelline space
C. Corona radiata
D. Plasma membrane
Answer: (2)
162. Human protein $\alpha$-1-antitrypsin is used to treat:
Answer: (2)
163. Eukaryotic cell membrane correct statements:
A. RBC membrane 52% protein.
B. Phospholipid bilayer.
C. Extensions form mesosomes.
D. Lipid tails hydrophobic/inner.
E. Glycocalyx on outer surface.
A. RBC membrane 52% protein.
B. Phospholipid bilayer.
C. Extensions form mesosomes.
D. Lipid tails hydrophobic/inner.
E. Glycocalyx on outer surface.
Answer: (4)
164. Male frogs distinguished by presence of:
Answer: (1)
165. Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth equation:
Answer: (1)
166. Frog anatomy correct statements:
A. Hepatic portal system.
B. 12 pairs cranial nerves.
C. Ureters/oviducts separate into cloaca.
D. Hind-brain includes optic lobes.
E. Sinus venosus joins right atrium.
A. Hepatic portal system.
B. 12 pairs cranial nerves.
C. Ureters/oviducts separate into cloaca.
D. Hind-brain includes optic lobes.
E. Sinus venosus joins right atrium.
Answer: (2)
167. Select the INCORRECT statements regarding Rh grouping:
A. Erythroblastosis foetalis: Rh-ve foetus, Rh+ve mother.
B. Rh antigen on RBCs of majority.
C. Transfusion requires matching.
D. Rh incompatibility: Rh-ve mother, Rh+ve foetus.
E. Erythroblastosis avoided by anti-Rh antibodies after SECOND child.
A. Erythroblastosis foetalis: Rh-ve foetus, Rh+ve mother.
B. Rh antigen on RBCs of majority.
C. Transfusion requires matching.
D. Rh incompatibility: Rh-ve mother, Rh+ve foetus.
E. Erythroblastosis avoided by anti-Rh antibodies after SECOND child.
Answer: (1)
168. Correct statements on human endoskeleton:
A. Skull is monocondylic.
B. Vertebral joints are cartilaginous.
C. 7 cervical vertebrae.
D. All ribs bicephalic (except last 2).
E. Occipital bone articulates with atlas.
A. Skull is monocondylic.
B. Vertebral joints are cartilaginous.
C. 7 cervical vertebrae.
D. All ribs bicephalic (except last 2).
E. Occipital bone articulates with atlas.
Answer: (3)
169. Match hormone:
A. Cortisol
B. Aldosterone
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Progesterone
I. Mammary alveoli
II. Anti-inflammatory
III. Na+ reabsorption
IV. Pancreatic enzymes
A. Cortisol
B. Aldosterone
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Progesterone
I. Mammary alveoli
II. Anti-inflammatory
III. Na+ reabsorption
IV. Pancreatic enzymes
Answer: (2)
170. Plasmodium life cycle order:
A. Asexual in RBCs.
B. Asexual in liver.
C. Gametocytes in RBCs.
D. Sporozoites reach liver.
E. Mosquito injects sporozoites.
A. Asexual in RBCs.
B. Asexual in liver.
C. Gametocytes in RBCs.
D. Sporozoites reach liver.
E. Mosquito injects sporozoites.
Answer: (2)
171. Incorrect statements:
A. Platyhelminthes digestive system incomplete.
B. Adult Echinoderms bilateral.
C. Aschelminthes pseudocoelom.
D. Chondrichthyes persistent notochord.
E. Reptilia constant body temp.
A. Platyhelminthes digestive system incomplete.
B. Adult Echinoderms bilateral.
C. Aschelminthes pseudocoelom.
D. Chondrichthyes persistent notochord.
E. Reptilia constant body temp.
Answer: (1)
172. Specific receptors for neurotransmitters present on:
Answer: (1)
173. Muscle contraction statements:
A. Motor neuron carries signal to sarcolemma.
B. Action potential releases Ca++.
C. Ca++ inactivates actin.
D. Actin binds myosin forming cross bridge.
E. Sarcomere shortening.
A. Motor neuron carries signal to sarcolemma.
B. Action potential releases Ca++.
C. Ca++ inactivates actin.
D. Actin binds myosin forming cross bridge.
E. Sarcomere shortening.
Answer: (4)
174. Not an example of convergent evolution:
Answer: (2)
175. JGA formed by cellular modifications in:
Answer: (3)
176. Identify enzyme class:
$X-C-C-Y \xrightarrow{E} X-Y + C=C$
$X-C-C-Y \xrightarrow{E} X-Y + C=C$
Answer: (2)
177. Match Group to Respiration:
A. Molluscs
B. Reptiles
C. Adult amphibians
D. Amoeba
I. Pulmonary
II. Branchial
III. Cellular
IV. Pulmonary and Cutaneous
A. Molluscs
B. Reptiles
C. Adult amphibians
D. Amoeba
I. Pulmonary
II. Branchial
III. Cellular
IV. Pulmonary and Cutaneous
Answer: (4)
178. Reason behind large holes in Swiss Cheese:
Answer: (4)
179. Evolution chronology:
A. 65 mya
B. 500 mya
C. 350 mya
D. 320 mya
I. Jawless fish
II. Dinosaurs disappeared
III. Seaweeds
IV. Invertebrates active
A. 65 mya
B. 500 mya
C. 350 mya
D. 320 mya
I. Jawless fish
II. Dinosaurs disappeared
III. Seaweeds
IV. Invertebrates active
Answer: (1)
180. Correct on population interactions:
A. Parasitism/commensalism: one benefits, other harmed.
B. Mutualism: both benefit.
C. Commensalism: both benefit.
D. Parasitism: one benefits, other harmed.
E. Amensalism: one harmed, other unaffected.
A. Parasitism/commensalism: one benefits, other harmed.
B. Mutualism: both benefit.
C. Commensalism: both benefit.
D. Parasitism: one benefits, other harmed.
E. Amensalism: one harmed, other unaffected.
Answer: (4)
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