PG TRB Botany Exam Mock Test - 140 Marks

1. Match it: Laminaria - (2)Used as a gelling agent, Porphyra - (3)Used as Nori in sushi, Chondrus - (1)Used for carrageen, Gelidium - (4)Used for agar production

a) i(1),ii(2),iii(3),iv(4) b) i(1),ii(3),iii(2),iv(4) c) i(3),ii(1),iii(2),iv(4) d) i(2),ii(3),iii(1),iv(4)

2. Which statement is wrong?

a) V.Desikachary - Monograph on Indian Red/Brown Algae b) Y.Bharadwaja - Understanding of the zygnemataceae family c) M.S.Balakrishnan - Contributes to the study of fresh water algae d) Krishnamurthy - The largest algal studies in TN(1991)

3. Which of the following algae is known as Horsetail or Equisetoides?

A. Volvox, Hydrodictyon B. Chlamydomonas, Chlorella C. Ulothrix, spirogyra D. Chara, Nitella

4. Statement 1: Amastigomycota Includes terrestrial fungi and lacking flagella. Statement 2: Gymnomycota and mastigomycota include flagellated fungi.

a) Both are true b) Both are false c) i is true but ii is false d) i is false but ii is true

5. Which journal is associated with the mycological society of India founded by C.V. Subramanian?

a) mycologia b) Kavaka c) Fungal diversity d) Journal of mycology

6. In which is virtual mycelium found?

A. Mushroom B. Yeast C. Mucor D. Bread molds

7. Which lichen partner is called as Fringe species?

A. Phototropic B. Photobiont C. Mycobiont D. Both B and C

8. Select incorrect statement

A. Rod shaped isidia- Parmelia B. Corolloid shape isidia- Umblicaria C. Coral shape isidia- Usnea D. Scale shape isidia- Collema

9. Antheridia intermixed with paraphysis are seen in

A. Funaria B. Marchantia C. Riccia D. Anthoceros

10. Which type of spore disposal relies on raindrops to dislodge spores?

a) Ballistospore discharge b) Splash dispersal c) wind-mediated dispersal d) gravity assisted

11. Arrange the following plants in list 2 in order of the number of valves (no valve - 1.) riccia, two valves - 2.)marchantia, four valves - 3.) anthoceros, five valves - 4.) pellia)

A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,3,4,2 C. 2,3,1,4 D. 2,3,4,1

12. In Pinus/gymnosperms, the haploid structure are

(a) Megaspore, endosperm and embryo (b) megaspore, pollen grain and endosperm (c) megaspore, integument and root (d) Pollen grain, leaf and root.

13. The following table gives vascular tissue characteristics of four divisions of Tracheophyta. Identify the correct combinations: (A) Psilophyta---iv. Primitive tracheids..., (B) Lycopodiophyta----iii. Tracheids, vessels..., (C) Sphenophyta----ii. Tracheids, (D) Pteridophyta--- i. Well-developed tracheid...

(a) (A)-i, (B)-ii, (C)-ii, (D)-iv (b) (A)-ii, (B)-1, (C)-iv, (D)-iii (c) (A)-iv, (B)-iii, (C)-ii, (D)-i (d) (A)-im. (B)-iv, (C)-i, (D)-ii.

14. Assertion (A): Apospory is not uncommon in some ferns like Pteris. Reason (R): In ferns some time the prothallus is formed from vegetative parts of sporophyte plant.

(a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A (c) Both A and R are not true (d) A is true but R is false.

15. Select the wrong pair.

a) Haplostele - Lycopodium cernuum. b) Actino stele -- Lycopodium serratum c) plecto stele-- Lycopodium clavatum. d) Siphon stele - Osmunda.

16. Which one of the genera is characteristics of mainly found in damp shaded places, xerophytic, Epiphytic and bird's nest moss.

a) Lycopodium b) Selaginella c) Marsillea d) pteris

17. Which one of the following incorrect statements

a) cedrus deodara used to make doors and boats. b) Taxus brevifolia to prepare in Taxol drug used for cancer treatment c) Ephedra geradiana to prepare medicine is Ephedrine and treatment of a kidney problems d) Thuja, Cupressus, Araucaria are ornamental plants

18. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Cycas-- Presence of female cone (b) Taxus--- presence of resin canal (c) Ephedra---occurrence of double fertilization (d) Gnetum---Presence of monosporic female gametophyte.

19. ----- formed the dominant forest vegetation during the carboniferous and permian periods.

a) Rhynia b) sphenophyllum. c) Cordaites d) All the above.

20. In fossilization preservation takes place in ------------forms.

A. 3 B.6 C. 2 D. 5

21. Estimate the geological period of Pteridospermales which is predominantly distributed in the earth?

A.Protozoic B.Palaeozoic C.Mesozoic D. Coenozoic

22. The common weed Catharanthus roseus is source of

a)Hay fever b)two carcinogens -vincristin and vinblastin c)Two anticancer drugs-Vincristin and vinblastin d)Skin rashes

23. The siddha system originated in

a)Bengal b)Kerala c) TamilNadu d)Gujarat

24. choose correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in

a) Ground nut -Assam b)Tea -Gujarat c)coffee. - Karnataka d) Sugarcane -chattisgarh

25. Identify the incorrectly matched pair of palmate compound leaf type.

a)Trifoliate. -wood apple b)Multifoliate -silk cotton tree c)Bifoliate. -cleome d)Quadrifoliate -Marsilea

26. Identify the order where the plants show alternate opposite and whorled phyllotaxy

a)china rose,calotropis and Nerium b)China rose,Nerium and calotropis c)Nerium, Calotropis and China rose d) calotropis, china rose and Nerium

27. Fabaceae was earlier known as ________

a) Solanaceae b) Papilionoideae c) Liliaceae d) Potato family

28. Match the Botanical Garden: (a) Lal Bagh, (b) Tropical Botanical, (c) Lloyd, (d) Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose

(A) a-(ii) Bangalore, b-(iii) Thiruvananthapuram, c-(iv) Darjeeling, d-(i) Kolkata (B) a-(ii), b-(iv),.c-(iii), d-(i) (C) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(it), d-(iv) (D) a(i). b-(ii), e-(iv); d-(iii)

29. rbcL and matk (from chloroplast DNA) are used as Barcoding regions for:

(A) Bacteria (B) Fungi (C) Plants (D) Insects

30. Which pair is correct?

(a) Cruciferae- Pentamerous (b) Ranunculaceae- Bicarpellary (c) Capparidaceae- Androphore (d) Cucurbitaceae- Axile-Placentation

31. The term 'gene' was coined by:

A) W. Johannsen B) G. Mendel C) T.H. Morgan D) Hugo de Vries

32. In Fabaceae the gynoecium is -

(a) Monocarpellary (b) Bicarpellary (c) Tricarpellary (d) Multicarpellary

33. The plant of Acacia melanoxylon shows:

(a) Cladodes (b) Phylloclade (c) Phyllode (d) Bulbils

34. Which plant disease is associated with tylosis formation?

A. Rust B. Wilt C. Mosaic D. Chlorosis

35. Assertion (A): Leaf gaps are permanent interruptions in vascular tissue. Reason (R): They are filled with xylem.

a) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation. b) Both A and R are false. c) A is true, R is false. d) A is false, R is true.

36. Which of the following groups of families are characterized by the occurrence of laminar stamens?

(a) Caryophyllaceae, Degenariaceae and Tiliaceae (b) Nymphaeaceae, Austrobaileyaceae and Degenariaceae (c) Papaveraceae, Austrobaileyaceae Brassicaceae and (d) Ranunculaceae, Papaveraceae and Nymphaeaceae

37. Parthenocarphy found in tomato and capsicum is

(a) Genetic (b) Environmental (c) Chemically Induced (d) Genetic and Chemically Induced

38. Compound pollen grains are found in

(a) Drosera (b) Drimys (c) In Drosera and Drimys both (d) Calotrophis

39. Consider the following statements: Lateral roots originate: 1. Endogenously 2. From pericycle cells 3. Exogenously 4. From endodermal cells

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

40. Consider the following: 1. Hydathodes 2. Salt glands 3. Nectaries 4. Lenticels. Which of these are secretary structures?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

41. Which of the following pair of genera, tetrasporic embro sac is found?

(a) Adoxa and Gnetum (b) Allium and Gnetum (c) Adoxa and Allium (d) Gnetum and Polygonum

42. In Myristica fragrans mace is obtained by?

(a) Aril (b) Embryo (c) Endosperm (d) Perisperm

43. Amphivasal vascular bundles are found in the stem of

(a) Dracaena (b) Beta (c) Boerhaavia (d) Cucurbita

44. Role of copper grid in electron microscopy.

A.Vacuum stability B.Maintain solution pH C.For handling of ultra-thin sections D.all the above

45. CAM also occurs in i. Pteritophytes such as Isoetes, ii.Polypodiaceae family, iii.Gymnosperms such as Welwitschia, iv. Deserts plants

A.i,ii, and iii B.i,ii, and iv C.i,iii, and iv D.i,ii,iii and iv

46. Which one is a incorrect statement

A.Light is a transverse electromagnetic wave B.Light moves at a speed of $30 \times 20^8 \text{ms}^{-1}$ C.The energy of a photon depends on the frequency of the light D.Light as a particle is called photon

47. All the intermediates of glycolysis between glucose and pyruvate are

A.Phosphorylated B.Dephosphorylated C.Unstable D. None of the above

48. Selected the wrong statement from the following

A. Formative phase of the cells retain the capability of cell division B. In elongation phase development of Central vacuole takes place C. In maturation phase thickening and differentiation takes place D. In maturation phase the cells grow further

49. Assertion: component of nitrogenous, nitrate reductase involved in nitrogen metabolism and nitrogen fixation. Reason: This absorbed as chlorine ions

A.A and R is correct. R is correct explanation of A B .A and R is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is correct but R is wrong D.A and R is wrong

50. Match the following: i. Types of senescence - c.Leopold, ii.Photoperiodism - b.Allard, iii. Vernalization- a. Lysenko

A.i-a,ii-b,iii-c B.i-a,ii-c,iii-b C.i-c,ii-b,iii-a D.i-b,ii-a,iii-c

51. Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation takes place during the electron transport chain in mitochondria. Reason (R): Succinyl CoA is phosphorylation into succinic acid by substrate phosphorylation

A. A and R is correct. R is correct explanation of A B. A and R is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is correct but R is wrong D. A and R is wrong

52. Select the correctly matched pair

A. A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D -vi ,E - vi, F- iii B.A -v, B - i, C - ii, D - iv, E-vi, F-iii C.A-iii, B-v, C -vi, D - i, E-ii , F-iv D.A-ii, B-iii, C - v, D - vi , E-iv , F-i

53. Antenna molecules are present in this cells

A. Ribosome B. Mitochondria C. Chloroplast D. Lysosome

54. Which statement is correct in cytokinin: i. Cytokinin delays the process of aging, ii. Decrease rate Protein synthesis, iii. Plants accumulate solute very actively with the help of cytokinins, iv. Reduce the formation of chloroplast

A.i and ii is correct B.i and iii is correct C. ii and iv is correct D.i and iv is correct

55. Complex I can be inhibited exclusively by -------.

A.Oligomycin B.cyanide C.Antimycin D. Rotenone

56. Climax community is characterized by

A.species B.Constant disturbance C.Minimal nutrient cycling D.Maximum biomass and stability

57. Which of the following is an example of obligate parasitism?

A.Cleaner fish and shark B.Lichens C.Barnacles on whales D.Cuscuta on plants

58. r-strategists usually exhibit -

A.Few offspring, late reproduction B.Large body size, slow development C.High competition ability and long life span D. Small body size, early reproduction, high fecundity

59. In Lotka-Volterra competition model, coexistence is possible when -

A. Intraspecific competition > Interspecific competition B. Interspecific competition > Intraspecific competition C.Both equal D.Competition is absent

60. Ecotone areas often have greater species richness due to –

A. Competitive exclusion B. Edge effect C. Habitat fragmentation D. Ecological release

61. Which biome is characterized by highest net primary productivity per unit area?

A. Desert B. Temperate forest C. Tropical rainforest D. Tundra

62. In metapopulation dynamics, a 'rescue effect' refers to

A.Immigration preventing local extinction B. Rapid logistic growth C.Carrying capacity increase D. Resource partitioning

63. In Whittaker's five-kingdom scheme, the ecological concept of niche breadth is mainly applied to

A. Communities B.Species C. Ecosystems D. Populations

64. In ecological energetics, the ratio of Net Primary Productivity (NPP) to Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) is called

A.Assimilation efficiency B. Ecological efficiency C. Production efficiency D. Ecological quotient

65. Which functional response curve is typical for predator-prey interactions with handling time limitation?

A .Type I B. Type II C. Type III D.Logistic curve

66. The r/K selection theory explains

A.Patterns of ecological succession B. Life-history strategies of species C. Species-area relationship D. Island biogeography

67. The Plant Protection Association of India was established in:

(A) 1984 (B) 1960 (C) 1976 (D) 1972

68. Fungi that cause vascular wilts mainly invade

a) Phloem tissue b) Xylem vessels c) Cambium tissue d) Bundle Sheath

69. Expand SAR.

a) Systematic Applied Resistance b) Symbolized Acquired Resistance c) Systemic Acquired Resistance d) Symbolized Applied Resistance

70. Which of the following is not a criterion for classifying plant virus?

a) Virus structure b) Physicochemical properties c) Nucleic acid type d) Host-specific genes

71. Example for bottle shaped virion is

a) Bicauda viridae b) Rhabdoviridae c) Ampullaviridae d) Retroviridae

72. In the isolation and purification of plant virus, the density gradient centrifugation performed mainly with

a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Maltose d) Sucrose

73. The first edition of Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology, Volume 2 dealt with

a) Archaebacteria b) Cyanobacteria c) Actinomycetes d) Gram-Positive Bacteria

74. In bacteria the flagellum is used for swimming and swarming, whereas the pilus is used for

a) Gliding b) Sliding c) Random walk d) Twitching

75. Identify the wrong statement about sterilization.

a) Ethylene Oxide is mainly used to sterilize b) Ethanol and Isopropyl are examples for liquid sterilization. c) Phenols is one of the oldest antiseptic agents d) Inspissation is the radioactive sterilization.

76. Pseudomurein polymers are found in the cell wall of ______.

A) virus B) Mycoplasma C) Archaebacteria D) Fungi

77. Assertion: Pyrethrum is also the name of a natural insecticide made from the dried flower Chrysanthemum cinerarifolium. Reason : Pyrethrin attacks the nervous system of all insects and inhibits female mosquitoes from biting.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for (A). (B) Both are true but the reason is not the correct explanation. (C) (A) is true, but the reason is false. (D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

78. Select the correct statement: 1. It involves shaking of callus derived cells in liquid medium, 2. Cell suspension culture is useful for secondary metabolites production, 3. Cell suspension culture always produced organised plantlets directly, 4. Filtration or sieving helps to maintain uniform cell population

A. 1 , 2 B. 3 , 4 C. 1 , 2 , 4 D. 1 , 2 , 3 ,4

79. Match: A. Nanoparticles - 2. Materials sized 1-100 nm, B. Nanosensors - 4. Devices to detect biological molecules, C. Nanocarriers - 1. Targeted delivery of drugs, D. Nanoencapsulation - 3. Encasing bioactive molecules

A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 B. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 C. A-3, В-1, C-4, D-2 D. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

80. Match - Bioremediation Techniques: 1. Phytoremediation - B. Degradation using plants, 2. Bioventing. - A. Oil spill clean-up, 3. Mycoremediation. - C. Fungal degradation, 4. Bioaugmentation - D. Addition of microbes

a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

81. Assertion (A): Bioremediation is always eco-friendly and safe. Reason (R): It involves using natural biological agents like microbes and plants to detoxify pollutants.

a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true, R is false d) A is false, R is true

82. Which of the following is incorrect?

a) Haploid plants can be obtained by anther culture. b) Hairy root cultures are induced by Agrobacterium tumefaciens. c) Embryo rescue technique is used to overcome hybridization barriers. d) Suspension culture is used for production of secondary metabolites.

83. Identify the odd one out:

A) pBR322 B) pUC19 C) Ti plasmid D) R plasmid

84. Identify the incorrect pair:

A) RAPD Uses arbitrary primers B) RFLP - Codominant and highly reproducible C) AFLP digestion Random primers without restriction D) RFLP → Requires DNA probe for detection

85. Match the following with correct application: A. Biofarming, B. Bioremediation, C. Bioprospecting, D. Transgenic drought plants

a) A-1 (Antibodies), B-2 (Pollutants), C-3 (Bioactive compounds), D-4 (Stress-inducible genes) b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

86. Roundup Ready Soybean, a transgenic plant is designed for one of the below given traits. Choose the correct one

(A) Nutritional enhancement (B) Viral disease resistance (C) Herbicide resistance (D) Insect resistance

87. Which of the following statements is correct for RT-PCR?

(A) RT-PCR directly amplifies RNA without any prior conversion (B) RT-PCR converts RNA into complementary DNA (C) RT-PCR uses restriction enzymes to fragment RNA (D) RT-PCR amplifies only double-stranded DNA templates

88. Match DNA sequencing technique: (a) Maxam Gilbert (ii), (b) Automated (iii), (c) Next generation (iv), (d) Sanger's (i)

(A) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(ii), d-(i) (B) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) (C) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) (D) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)

89. Sexual Incompatibility in plants with large sized ovaries can be best overcome by which of the following methods?

(A) X-ray treatment (B) Intra-ovarian pollination (C) Hybridization (D) Test-tube pollination

90. A non-allelic interaction where an allele of one gene has an overriding effect on the other gene is known as:

(A) Incomplete dominance (B) Epistasis (C) Codominance (D) Multiple allelism

91. A gene affecting many phenotypic aspects simultaneously is known as:

(A) Polygenic (B) Pleiotropic (C) Epistasis (D) Pseudogene

92. If the recombination frequency between two genes is less than 50% then the two genes are-

(A) present on the same chromosome and are linked (B) present on different chromosomes and are not linked (C) unable to show independent assortment (D) Both A and C options are correct

93. Statement 1: the bottle neck effect is an extreme example of genetic drift Statement 2: it happens when the size of a population is severely reduced.

A. Statement 1,2 not true B. Statement 1 true, 2 not true C. Statement 1,2 true D. Statement 2 true, 1 not true

94. A key disadvantage of natural vegetative propagation is

A. Lack of dispersal mechanisms B. No fertilization is involved C. The area is quickly colonized D. Genetic uniformity

95. The dominance hypothesis of heterosis was first proposed in ------ by --------.

A. Davenport-1908 B. Shull-1908 C. Johansson -1907 D. Bateson-1908

96. Emasculation is a part of

A. Selection B. Introduction C. Hybridization D. Heterosis

97. The direction of regression line is indicated by:

A. The absolute value of intercept B.The sign of intercept C.The absolute value of regression co-efficient D.The sign of regression co-efficient

98. Answer true or false for the following statements (A correlation coefficient): a. Should not be calculated when there is an underlying relationship between the two variables but it is not linear. b. Does not provide evidence of a causal relationship between two variables. c. Should not be used to judge the biological importance of the relationship between two variables. d. Should be performed only when certain assumptions are satisfied.

a,b true b,c,d true a,d true a,b,c,d true

99. Find out the uses of t-test

A. It is used to test the hypothesis that the population mean is equal to a specified value. B. It is used to test the equality to population mean. C.It is used to jest the significance of the sample correlation coefficient. D. All the above

100. A marker enzyme of mitochondria which is located in matrix is:

(A) Citrate synthase (B) Succinate dehydrogenase (C) Fatty acid thiokinase (D) Carnitine fatty acyl transferase

101. Choose the incorrect statement for START check point of cell cycle:

(A) It is located in the mid G1 phase of cell cycle (B) It is located in the S phase of cell cycle (C) It is regulated by d type cyclin along with CDK4 (D) It regulates entry of the cell in S-phase of the cell cycle

102. Match: (a) Lysosomes - (iii) Destruction of aged RBC and dead cells, (b) Peroxisomes - (i) Beta oxidation of fatty acids, (c) RER. - (iv) Protein synthesis and their correct folding, (d) Golgi. - (ii) Packaging of secretary material

(A) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii) (B) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii) (C) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii) (D) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)

103. Match: a) DNA gyrase - (iii) ATP dependent transient double strand break, b) Topoisomerase II. - (iii) ATP dependent transient double strand break, c) DNA primase. - (iv) Synthesis of RNA primer, d) DNA ligase. - (i) Covalent closure of nicks

(A) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii) (B) a-(iii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) (C) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) (D) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)

104. A subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase which is not a part of core enzyme but plays a significant role in transcription initiation process?

(A) $\beta'$ (Beta prime) (B) $\beta$ (Beta) (C) $\alpha$ (Alpha) (D) $\sigma$ (Sigma)

105. Addition of methyl guanosine cap, splicing of introns and A tailing, is specific for:

(A) messenger RNA (B) transfer RNA (C) ribosomal RNA (D) microRNA

106. The seven nucleotides long conserved poly-purine tract located upstream of the AUG initiation codon in prokaryotic mRNA is known as:

(A) Pribnow box sequence (B) Shine Dalgarno sequence (C) Kozak sequence (D) TATA box sequence

107. Which of the following is a transcription inhibitor?

(A) Actinomycin D (B) Chloramphenicol (C) Tetracycline (D) Puromycin

108. Which of the following is an example of post- transcriptional gene regulation mechanism?

(A) Histone acetylation (B) DNA methylation (C) RNAi (D) Nucleosome remodeling

109. BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool) is used for:

(A) To extract DNA (B) To analyze gene expression (C) To align protein sequences (D) To align karyoptes

110. Histone protein which facilitates packaging of nucleosome into 30 nm solenoid structure is:

(A) H2A (B) H2B (C) H3 (D) H1

111. “செய்து கற்றல்” முறையை வலியுறுத்தியவர் யார்? Who emphasized the Learning by Doing method?

A) ரூசோ (Rousseau) B) டூயி (Dewey) C) மாண்டிசொரி (Montessori) D) பாவ்லோவ் (Pavlov)

112. IQ = (MA/CA) × 100 என்ற சூத்திரத்தை முன்வைத்தவர் யார்? Who proposed the formula IQ = (MA/CA) × 100?

A) ஸ்டெர்ன் (Stern) B) பினே (Binet) C) டெர்மன் (Terman) D) ஸ்பியர்மேன் (Spearman)

113. மாஸ்லோ தேவைகளின் அடுக்குக்கோட்பாட்டின் உச்ச நிலை எது? The highest level in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is:

A) சுய வெளிப்பாடு – Self-actualization B) பாதுகாப்பு – Safety C) கண்ணியம் – Esteem D) சார்பு உணர்வு – Belongingness

114. “சாதகச் சட்டம்” (Law of Effect) யாருடையது? The “Law of Effect” was proposed by:

A) தார்ண்டைக் (Thorndike) B) கோலர் (Kohler) C) ஸ்கின்னர் (Skinner) D) பாண்டூரா (pandura)

115. “பல்நுண்ணறிவு கோட்பாடு” யாருடையது? Who proposed the Multiple Intelligences Theory?

A) கார்ட்னெர் (Gardner) B) ஸ்பியர்மேன் (Spearman) C) கேட்டெல் (Cattell) D) தர்ஸ்டன் (Thurstone)

116. “அருகாமை வளர்ச்சி வலம் (ZPD)” கருத்தை முன்வைத்தவர் யார்? Who introduced the concept of Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)?

A) வைகோத்ஸ்கி (Vygotsky) B) பியாஜே (Piaget) C) புரூணர் (Bruner) D) ஸ்கின்னர் (Skinner)

117. பொருத்துக (Match): a) பாவ்லோவ் – ii) பாரம்பரிய நிலைமையாக்கம், b) ஸ்கின்னர் – i) செயற்பாட்டு நிலைமையாக்கம், c) கோலர் – iii) ஆழ்நுணுக்கக் கற்றல், d) தார்ண்டைக் – iv) முயன்றி–தவறிக் கற்றல்

A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii C) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii D) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

118. ஒரு மாணவன் ஆசிரியர் உதவியுடன் தான் கற்றுக்கொள்ள முடிகிறது. இது எதற்கான உதாரணம்? A student learns only with teacher’s help. This is an example of:

A) அருகாமை வளர்ச்சி வலம் – ZPD B) முயன்று–தவறிக் கற்றல் – Trial & Error learning C) பாரம்பரிய நிலைமையாக்கம் – Classical Conditioning D) செயற்பாட்டு நிலைமையாக்கம் – Operant Conditioning

119. ஒரு மாணவன் அடிக்கடி தோல்வியால் “நான் முடியாது” என்கிறான். இது எதனை குறிக்கிறது? A student repeatedly says “I can’t” due to frequent failures. It indicates:

A) சுய திறன் குறைவு – Low Self-efficacy B) படைப்பாற்றல் – Creativity C) உந்துதல் – Motivation D) ஆளுமை – Personality

120. கூற்று (A): உட்புற உந்துதல் (Intrinsic Motivation) என்பது உள்ளார்ந்த ஆர்வம். காரணம் (R): அது வெளிப்புற பரிசுகளால் மட்டுமே உருவாகிறது.

A) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் சரியான விளக்கம் B) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் விளக்கம் அல்ல C) கூற்று சரி, காரணம் தவறு D) காரணம் சரி, கூற்று தவறு

121. கூற்று (A): Guidance என்பது பரந்த கருத்து. காரணம் (R): Counseling என்பது Guidance-இன் ஒரு பகுதி.

A) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் சரியான விளக்கம் B) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் விளக்கம் அல்ல C) கூற்று சரி, காரணம் தவறு D) காரணம் சரி, கூற்று தவறு

122. கூற்று (A): பியாஜே Concrete Operational நிலையில் Conservation புரிதல் ஏற்படுகிறது. காரணம் (R): இந்த நிலையில் குழந்தைகள் நியாயபூர்வ சிந்தனையை அடைகின்றனர்.

A) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் சரியான விளக்கம் B) கூற்றும் காரணமும் சரி; காரணம் விளக்கம் அல்ல C) கூற்று சரி, காரணம் தவறு D) காரணம் சரி, கூற்று தவறு

123. Mean = 50, SD = 5, X = 60. Z-score = ?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) −1

124. ஒரு மாணவரின் மதிப்பெண்கள்: 40, 50, 60. சராசரி (Mean) எவ்வளவு? Scores: 40, 50, 60. What is the Mean?

A) 40 B) 45 C) 50 D) 55

125. “நிலையான சிதறல்” (Standard Deviation) எதற்கான அளவீடு? Standard Deviation is a measure of:

A) மையச் சாய்வு – Central Tendency B) பிளவு – Dispersion C) தொடர்பு – Correlation D) None

126. NEP 2020 பரிந்துரைத்த கல்வி அமைப்பு: What is the school structure recommended in NEP 2020?

A) 10+2+3 B) 8+4 C) 5+3+3+4 D) 6+6

127. நிலைத்த வளர்ச்சி இலக்கு – 4 (SDG-4) வலியுறுத்துவது: SDG-4 emphasizes:

A) வேலை வாய்ப்பு – Employment B) தரமான கல்வி அனைவருக்கும் – Quality Education for All C) இலவச உணவு – Free Food D) None

128. தமிழ்நாட்டில் முதலில் “மதிய உணவுத் திட்டம்” அறிமுகமான ஆண்டு: In which year was the Mid-day Meal Scheme first introduced in Tamil Nadu?

A) 1956 B) 1960 C) 1982 D) 1985

129. Freud தன்மை அமைப்பு: Freud’s Personality Structure consists of: A) அகம் – இட் – அதியகம், B) அகம் – இட் – அதியகம், C) அகம் – இட் – அதியகம், D) அகம் – இட் – அதியகம்

A) அகம் – இட் – அதியகம் (Ego - Id - SuperEgo) B) Option B C) Option C D) Option D

130. The 'Founder Effect' is an example of what?

A) Genetic Drift B) Gene Flow C) Natural Selection D) Mutation

131. Which of the following is typically a water-soluble vitamin?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin E

132. The primary site of photosynthesis in C4 plants is the:

A) Epidermis B) Mesophyll cells C) Bundle Sheath cells D) Xylem

133. Which genetic disease is caused by a dominant allele?

A) Sickle cell anemia B) Cystic fibrosis C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Huntington's disease

134. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia is called:

A) Nitrogen fixation B) Nitrification C) Denitrification D) Ammonification

135. Which phylum contains organisms that exhibit radial symmetry and nematocysts?

A) Platyhelminthes B) Cnidaria C) Annelida D) Porifera

136. The scientist credited with the discovery of the double helix structure of DNA is:

A) Rosalind Franklin B) Gregor Mendel C) Watson and Crick D) Erwin Chargaff

137. Which phytohormone is primarily responsible for stomatal closure during water stress?

A) Auxin B) Gibberellin C) Abscisic acid (ABA) D) Cytokinin

138. The process of producing genetically identical individuals is known as:

A) Mutation B) Cloning C) Hybridization D) Meiosis

139. A statistical test used to determine if there is a significant association between two categorical variables is the:

A) t-test B) ANOVA C) Chi-square test D) Regression analysis

140. In which stage of mitosis do the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles?

A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase